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⚛️ Physics — 45 Questions
1
Physics+4 / −1
Match the corresponding entries of Column 1 with Column 2. [Where m is the magnification produced by the mirror]
1
A \(\rightarrow\) a and c; B \(\rightarrow\) a and d; C \(\rightarrow\) a and b; D \(\rightarrow\) c and d
2
A \(\rightarrow\) a and c; B \(\rightarrow\) a and d; C \(\rightarrow\) a and b; D \(\rightarrow\) c and d
3
A \(\rightarrow\) a and c; B \(\rightarrow\) a and d; C \(\rightarrow\) a and b; D \(\rightarrow\) c and d
4
A \(\rightarrow\) a and c; B \(\rightarrow\) a and d; C \(\rightarrow\) a and b; D \(\rightarrow\) c and d
2
Physics+4 / −1
What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that can complete the loop?
1
\(\sqrt{3gR}\)
2
\(\sqrt{3gR}\)
3
\(\sqrt{3gR}\)
4
\(\sqrt{3gR}\)
3
Physics+4 / −1
From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular axis, passing through the centre?
1
\(\displaystyle \frac{11\, MR^2}{32}\)
2
\(\displaystyle \frac{11\, MR^2}{32}\)
3
\(\displaystyle \frac{11\, MR^2}{32}\)
4
\(\displaystyle \frac{11\, MR^2}{32}\)
4
Physics+4 / −1
If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the angle between these vectors is:
1
\( 45^\circ \)
2
\( 45^\circ \)
3
\( 45^\circ \)
4
\( 45^\circ \)
5
Physics+4 / −1
When an \(\alpha\)-particle of mass m moving with velocity v bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge Ze, its distance of closest approach from the nucleus depends on m as
1
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{\sqrt{m}}\)
2
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{\sqrt{m}}\)
3
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{\sqrt{m}}\)
4
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{\sqrt{m}}\)
6
Physics+4 / −1
A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf's is
1
3 : 4
2
3 : 4
3
3 : 4
4
3 : 4
7
Physics+4 / −1
A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration. What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle becomes equal to 8 × 10−4J by the end of the second revolution after the beginning of the motion ?
1
\(0.18\, \text{m/s}^2\)
2
\(0.18\, \text{m/s}^2\)
3
\(0.18\, \text{m/s}^2\)
4
\(0.18\, \text{m/s}^2\)
8
Physics+4 / −1
A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of time dependent force \(\vec{F}\) = \(\left(2t\hat{i} + 3t^2\hat{j}\right)\) N , where \(\hat{i}\) and \(\hat{j}\) are unit vectors along x and y axis.What power will developed by the force at the time (t) ?
1
(2t3 + 3t4) W
2
(2t3 + 3t4) W
3
(2t3 + 3t4) W
4
(2t3 + 3t4) W
9
Physics+4 / −1
The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prismis \(45^\circ\). The angle of prism is \(60^\circ\). If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively, are
1
\(\displaystyle 30^\circ\, ; \sqrt{2}\)
2
\(\displaystyle 30^\circ\, ; \sqrt{2}\)
3
\(\displaystyle 30^\circ\, ; \sqrt{2}\)
4
\(\displaystyle 30^\circ\, ; \sqrt{2}\)
10
Physics+4 / −1
At what height from the surface of earth the gravitation potential and the value of g are \(-\, 5.4 × 10^7J\, \text{Kg}^{−2}\) and \(6.0\,\text{ms}^{−2}\) respectively? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km.
1
\(1400\, \text{Km}\)
2
\(1400\, \text{Km}\)
3
\(1400\, \text{Km}\)
4
\(1400\, \text{Km}\)
11
Physics+4 / −1
The ratio of escape velocity at earth (\(v_e\)) to the escape velocity at a planet (\(v_p\)) whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is
1
\(1 : 4\)
2
\(1 : 4\)
3
\(1 : 4\)
4
\(1 : 4\)
12
Physics+4 / −1
A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view an object 200 cmaway from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance
1
46.0 cm
2
46.0 cm
3
46.0 cm
4
46.0 cm
13
Physics+4 / −1
The intensity at the maximum in a Young’s double slit experiment is \(I_0\). Distance between two slits is \(d\, =\, 5\lambda\), where \(\lambda\) is the wavelength of light used in the experiment. What will be the intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance D = 10 d?
1
\(\displaystyle \frac{I_0}{4}\)
2
\(\displaystyle \frac{I_0}{4}\)
3
\(\displaystyle \frac{I_0}{4}\)
4
\(\displaystyle \frac{I_0}{4}\)
14
Physics+4 / −1
In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width a, the first minimum is observed at an angle 30° when light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of
1
\(\displaystyle sin^{-1}\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)\)
2
\(\displaystyle sin^{-1}\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)\)
3
\(\displaystyle sin^{-1}\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)\)
4
\(\displaystyle sin^{-1}\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)\)
15
Physics+4 / −1
A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half.
1
compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done.
2
compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done.
3
compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done.
4
compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done.
16
Physics+4 / −1
A refrigerator works between 4°C and 30°C. It is required to remove 600 calories of heat every second in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated space constant.The power required is (Take, 1 cal =4.2Joules)
1
23.65 W
2
23.65 W
3
23.65 W
4
23.65 W
17
Physics+4 / −1
If the velocity of a particle is \(\text{v}\, =\, \text{At}\, +\, \text{Bt}^2\), where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it between \(1\,s\) and \(2\,s\) is
1
\(\displaystyle \frac{3}{2}\,\text{A}\, +\,\frac{7}{3}\,\text{B}\)
2
\(\displaystyle \frac{3}{2}\,\text{A}\, +\,\frac{7}{3}\,\text{B}\)
3
\(\displaystyle \frac{3}{2}\,\text{A}\, +\,\frac{7}{3}\,\text{B}\)
4
\(\displaystyle \frac{3}{2}\,\text{A}\, +\,\frac{7}{3}\,\text{B}\)
18
Physics+4 / −1
A disc and a sphere of same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same altitude and length. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first?
1
Both reach at the same time
2
Both reach at the same time
3
Both reach at the same time
4
Both reach at the same time
19
Physics+4 / −1
A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to turn about an axis which is perpendicular to its plane and passes through its centre. It is subjected to a torque which produces a constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad s−2. Its net acceleration in s−2 at the end of 2.0 S is approximately
1
6.0
2
6.0
3
6.0
4
6.0
20
Physics+4 / −1
The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of \(200\, \text{ms}^{−1}\) at \(27^\circ \text{C}\) and \(1.0 \times 10^5 \text{Nm}^{−2}\) pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively, \(127^ \circ \text{C}\) and \(0.05 \times 10^5 \text{Nm}^{ −2}\) , the rms velocity of its molecules in \(\text{ms}^{ −1}\) is
1
\(\displaystyle \frac{400}{\sqrt{3}}\)
2
\(\displaystyle \frac{400}{\sqrt{3}}\)
3
\(\displaystyle \frac{400}{\sqrt{3}}\)
4
\(\displaystyle \frac{400}{\sqrt{3}}\)
21
Physics+4 / −1
An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio ofde-Broglie wavelengths associated with them is(c being velocity of light)
1
\(\displaystyle c\left(2mE\right)^{1/2}\)
2
\(\displaystyle c\left(2mE\right)^{1/2}\)
3
\(\displaystyle c\left(2mE\right)^{1/2}\)
4
\(\displaystyle c\left(2mE\right)^{1/2}\)
22
Physics+4 / −1
When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength \(\lambda\), the stopping potential is \(\text{V}\). If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength \(2\lambda\), the stopping potential is \(\displaystyle \frac{V}{4}\).The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is
1
\(\displaystyle \frac{5}{2}\, \lambda\)
2
\(\displaystyle \frac{5}{2}\, \lambda\)
3
\(\displaystyle \frac{5}{2}\, \lambda\)
4
\(\displaystyle \frac{5}{2}\, \lambda\)
23
Physics+4 / −1
Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two mass less strings of lengths l, are initially at a distance d (d < < l) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other witha velocity \(v\). Then, \(v\) varies as a function of the distance \(x\) between the sphere, as
1
\(\displaystyle v \propto {x}\)
2
\(\displaystyle v \propto {x}\)
3
\(\displaystyle v \propto {x}\)
4
\(\displaystyle v \propto {x}\)
24
Physics+4 / −1
Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are \(\alpha_1\) and \(\alpha_2\). Length of brass and steel rods are \(l_1\) and \(l_2\) respectively. If \(\left(l_2 − l_1\right)\) is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the following relations holds good?
1
\({\alpha_1}^2 l_2 = {\alpha_2}^2l_1\)
2
\({\alpha_1}^2 l_2 = {\alpha_2}^2l_1\)
3
\({\alpha_1}^2 l_2 = {\alpha_2}^2l_1\)
4
\({\alpha_1}^2 l_2 = {\alpha_2}^2l_1\)
25
Physics+4 / −1
A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The value of \(h\) is [Latent heat of ice is \(3.4 × 10^5 J/kg\) and \(g = 10 N/kg\)
1
\(136\, \text{Km}\)
2
\(136\, \text{Km}\)
3
\(136\, \text{Km}\)
4
\(136\, \text{Km}\)
26
Physics+4 / −1
A black body is at a temperature of \(5760\, \text{K}\). The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength \(250\, \text{nm}\) is \(\text{U}_1\),at wavelength \(500\, \text{nm}\) is \(\text{U}_2\) and that at \(1000\, \text{nm}\) is \(\text{U}_3\) Wien's constant, \(\text{b}\, =\, 2.88 \times 10^6\, \text{nmK}\). Which of the following is correct?
1
\(\text{U}_1\, >\, \text{U}_2\)
2
\(\text{U}_1\, >\, \text{U}_2\)
3
\(\text{U}_1\, >\, \text{U}_2\)
4
\(\text{U}_1\, >\, \text{U}_2\)
27
Physics+4 / −1
Two non-mixing liquids of densities \(p\) and \(np \left(n > 1\right)\) are put in a container. The height of each liquid is \(\text{"A"}\). A solid cylinder of length \(\text{L}\) and density \(\text{d}\) is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length \(pL \left(p < 1\right)\) in the denser liquid. The density \(d\) is equal to
1
\(\{2 + \left(n − 1\right)p\}\rho\)
2
\(\{2 + \left(n − 1\right)p\}\rho\)
3
\(\{2 + \left(n − 1\right)p\}\rho\)
4
\(\{2 + \left(n − 1\right)p\}\rho\)
28
Physics+4 / −1
To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the inputis
1
A = 1,B = 1, C = 0
2
A = 1,B = 1, C = 0
3
A = 1,B = 1, C = 0
4
A = 1,B = 1, C = 0
29
Physics+4 / −1
A npn transistor is connected in common emitter configuration in a given amplifier. A load resistance of \(800\, \Omega\) is connected in the collector circuit and the voltage drop across it is \(0.8\, \text{V}\). If the current amplification factor is \(0.96\) and the input resistance of the circuit is \(192\, \Omega\), the voltage gain and the power gain of the amplifier will respectively be
1
4, 4
2
4, 4
3
4, 4
4
4, 4
30
Physics+4 / −1
Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is
1
\(10^{−1}\,A\)
2
\(10^{−1}\,A\)
3
\(10^{−1}\,A\)
4
\(10^{−1}\,A\)
31
Physics+4 / −1
A particle moves so that its position vector is given by \(\vec{r}\, =\, cos \,\omega \,t\, \hat{x}\, +\, sin\, \omega\,t\,\hat{y}\), where \(\omega\) is a constant. Which of the following is true ?
1
Velocity is perpendicular to \(\vec{r}\) and acceleration is directed towards the origin
2
Velocity is perpendicular to \(\vec{r}\) and acceleration is directed towards the origin
3
Velocity is perpendicular to \(\vec{r}\) and acceleration is directed towards the origin
4
Velocity is perpendicular to \(\vec{r}\) and acceleration is directed towards the origin
32
Physics+4 / −1
An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 μF and a resistor 40 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf
\(V\, =\, 10\,sin\,340\,t\). The power loss in A.C. circuit is
1
0.76 W
2
0.76 W
3
0.76 W
4
0.76 W
33
Physics+4 / −1
A small signal voltage V (t) = V0 sin ωt is applied across an ideal capacitor C
1
Current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t).
2
Current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t).
3
Current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t).
4
Current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t).
34
Physics+4 / −1
A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4 A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10 −3 Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is
1
2 H
2
2 H
3
2 H
4
2 H
35
Physics+4 / −1
A siren emitting a sound of frequency \(800\, Hz\) moves away from an observer towards a cliff at a speed of \(15\, \text{ms}^{−1}\). Then, the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff is (Take velocity of sound in air = \(330\,\text{ms}^{−1}\))
1
\(838\, \text{Hz}\)
2
\(838\, \text{Hz}\)
3
\(838\, \text{Hz}\)
4
\(838\, \text{Hz}\)
36
Physics+4 / −1
An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonates with a tuning fork when the smallest length of the column is \(50\, \text{Cm}\). The next larger length of the column resonating with the same tuning fork is
1
\(150\, \text{Cm}\)
2
\(150\, \text{Cm}\)
3
\(150\, \text{Cm}\)
4
\(150\, \text{Cm}\)
37
Physics+4 / −1
A uniform rope of length \(L\) and mass \(m_1\) hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass \(m_2\) is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength \(λ_1\) is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is \(λ_2\).The ratio \(\displaystyle \frac{λ_1}{λ_2}\) is
1
\(\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{m2}{m1}}\)
2
\(\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{m2}{m1}}\)
3
\(\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{m2}{m1}}\)
4
\(\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{m2}{m1}}\)
38
Physics+4 / −1
A capacitor of 2 μF is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turned to position 2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is
1
75%
2
75%
3
75%
4
75%
39
Physics+4 / −1
A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at anangle θ. The coefficient of friction between the tyres of the car and the road is μs. The maximum safe velocity on this road is
1
\(\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{g\mu_s + tanθ}{R1 − \mu_stanθ}}\)
2
\(\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{g\mu_s + tanθ}{R1 − \mu_stanθ}}\)
3
\(\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{g\mu_s + tanθ}{R1 − \mu_stanθ}}\)
4
\(\displaystyle \sqrt{\frac{g\mu_s + tanθ}{R1 − \mu_stanθ}}\)
40
Physics+4 / −1
The magnetic susceptibility is negative for
1
ferromagnetic material only
2
ferromagnetic material only
3
ferromagnetic material only
4
ferromagnetic material only
41
Physics+4 / −1
Given the value of Rydberg constant is \(10\,\text{m}^{-1}\), the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be
1
\(0.5 \times 10^7\,\text{m}^{-1}\)
2
\(0.5 \times 10^7\,\text{m}^{-1}\)
3
\(0.5 \times 10^7\,\text{m}^{-1}\)
4
\(0.5 \times 10^7\,\text{m}^{-1}\)
42
Physics+4 / −1
The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as \(\text{Q}\, =\, at − bt^2\), where a and b are positive constants. The total heat produced in R is
1
\(\displaystyle \frac{a^3R}{2b}\)
2
\(\displaystyle \frac{a^3R}{2b}\)
3
\(\displaystyle \frac{a^3R}{2b}\)
4
\(\displaystyle \frac{a^3R}{2b}\)
43
Physics+4 / −1
Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave?
1
A chargeless particle
2
A chargeless particle
3
A chargeless particle
4
A chargeless particle
44
Physics+4 / −1
A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed over its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B', at radial distances \(\displaystyle\frac{a}{2}\) and \(2a\) respectively, from the axis of the wire is
1
\(1\)
2
\(1\)
3
\(1\)
4
\(1\)
45
Physics+4 / −1
A square loop ABCD carrying a current is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor XY carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be
1
\(\displaystyle\frac{2µ_0I iL}{3π}\)
2
\(\displaystyle\frac{2µ_0I iL}{3π}\)
3
\(\displaystyle\frac{2µ_0I iL}{3π}\)
4
\(\displaystyle\frac{2µ_0I iL}{3π}\)
🧪 Chemistry — 45 Questions
46
Chemistry+4 / −1
Match items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code.

Codes
1
A - 2, B - 3, C - 1, D - 5
2
A - 2, B - 3, C - 1, D - 5
3
A - 2, B - 3, C - 1, D - 5
4
A - 2, B - 3, C - 1, D - 5
47
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which is the correct statement for the given acids ?
1
Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid
2
Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid
3
Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid
4
Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid
48
Chemistry+4 / −1
Fog is a colloidal solution of
1
Gas in liquid
2
Gas in liquid
3
Gas in liquid
4
Gas in liquid
49
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules ?
1
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
2
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
3
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
4
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
50
Chemistry+4 / −1
MY and NY3, two nearly insoluble salts have the same Ksp values of 6.2 × 10-13 at room temperature. Which statement would be true in regard to MY and NY3 ?
1
The molar solubility of MY in water is less than of NY3
2
The molar solubility of MY in water is less than of NY3
3
The molar solubility of MY in water is less than of NY3
4
The molar solubility of MY in water is less than of NY3
51
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect ?
1
Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts
2
Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts
3
Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts
4
Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts
52
Chemistry+4 / −1
The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is
1
Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone - pair electrons are not delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring л - electron system.
2
Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone - pair electrons are not delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring л - electron system.
3
Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone - pair electrons are not delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring л - electron system.
4
Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone - pair electrons are not delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring л - electron system.
53
Chemistry+4 / −1
When copper is heated with conc. HNO3 it produces
1
Cu(NO3)2 and NO
2
Cu(NO3)2 and NO
3
Cu(NO3)2 and NO
4
Cu(NO3)2 and NO
54
Chemistry+4 / −1
For the following reactions,
(i) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH \(\rightarrow\) CH3CH = CH2 + KBr + H2O
(ii)
(iii)
Which of the following statement is correct ?
1
(i) is elimination reaction, (ii) is substitution and (iii) is addition reaction
2
(i) is elimination reaction, (ii) is substitution and (iii) is addition reaction
3
(i) is elimination reaction, (ii) is substitution and (iii) is addition reaction
4
(i) is elimination reaction, (ii) is substitution and (iii) is addition reaction
55
Chemistry+4 / −1
Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by
1
magnetic quantum number.
2
magnetic quantum number.
3
magnetic quantum number.
4
magnetic quantum number.
56
Chemistry+4 / −1
he reaction

can be classified as
1
Alcohol formation reaction
2
Alcohol formation reaction
3
Alcohol formation reaction
4
Alcohol formation reaction
57
Chemistry+4 / −1
The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic no. 63), Gd (Atomic no. 64) and Tb (Atomic no. 65) are
1
[Xe] 4f6 5d1 6s2, [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe] 4f9 6s2
2
[Xe] 4f6 5d1 6s2, [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe] 4f9 6s2
3
[Xe] 4f6 5d1 6s2, [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe] 4f9 6s2
4
[Xe] 4f6 5d1 6s2, [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe] 4f9 6s2
58
Chemistry+4 / −1
At 100°C the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If Kb = 0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be
1
100°C
2
100°C
3
100°C
4
100°C
59
Chemistry+4 / −1
The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane, is
1
The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain
2
The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain
3
The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain
4
The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain
60
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which one of the following characteristics is associated with adsorption ?
1
∆G, ∆H and ∆S all are negative
2
∆G, ∆H and ∆S all are negative
3
∆G, ∆H and ∆S all are negative
4
∆G, ∆H and ∆S all are negative
61
Chemistry+4 / −1
Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridisation and shape given in column II and mark the correct option.
1
A - 1, B - 2, C - 4, D - 3
2
A - 1, B - 2, C - 4, D - 3
3
A - 1, B - 2, C - 4, D - 3
4
A - 1, B - 2, C - 4, D - 3
62
Chemistry+4 / −1
The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon, is
1
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde-ketone equilibration
2
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde-ketone equilibration
3
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde-ketone equilibration
4
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde-ketone equilibration
63
Chemistry+4 / −1
In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by
1
β-glycosidic bond
2
β-glycosidic bond
3
β-glycosidic bond
4
β-glycosidic bond
64
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which of the following is an analgesic ?
1
Penicillin
2
Penicillin
3
Penicillin
4
Penicillin
65
Chemistry+4 / −1
The pair of electron in the given carbanion, CH3C≡C, is present in which orbitals ?
1
sp3
2
sp3
3
sp3
4
sp3
66
Chemistry+4 / −1
Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O. Which of the given statements is false ?
1
The H–O–H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H–C–H bond angle in CH4
2
The H–O–H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H–C–H bond angle in CH4
3
The H–O–H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H–C–H bond angle in CH4
4
The H–O–H bond angle in H2O is larger than the H–C–H bond angle in CH4
67
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which one of the following statements is correct when SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution ?
1
The solution is decolourized
2
The solution is decolourized
3
The solution is decolourized
4
The solution is decolourized
68
Chemistry+4 / −1
The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures is
1
AH > 0 and AS < 0
2
AH > 0 and AS < 0
3
AH > 0 and AS < 0
4
AH > 0 and AS < 0
69
Chemistry+4 / −1
Natural rubber has
1
all trans - configuration
2
all trans - configuration
3
all trans - configuration
4
all trans - configuration
70
Chemistry+4 / −1
In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it ?
1
B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
2
B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
3
B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
4
B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)
71
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which of the following reagents would distinguish cis - cyclopenta - 1 , 2 - diol from the trans - isomer ?
1
Ozone
2
Ozone
3
Ozone
4
Ozone
72
Chemistry+4 / −1
The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with CaC2 is
1
CaCN
2
CaCN
3
CaCN
4
CaCN
73
Chemistry+4 / −1
Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in container with a pin - hole through which both can escape . What fraction of the oxygen escapes in the time required for one - half of the hydrogen to escape ?
1
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{1}}{\text{4}}\)
2
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{1}}{\text{4}}\)
3
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{1}}{\text{4}}\)
4
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{1}}{\text{4}}\)
74
Chemistry+4 / −1
Lithium has a bcc structure . Its density is 530 kg m‍-3 and its atomic mass is 6.94 g mol-1 . Calculate the edge length of a unit cell of lithium metal.
( NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol-1 ).
1
352 pm
2
352 pm
3
352 pm
4
352 pm
75
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct ? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25 ° C.
( Given , vapour pressure data at 25 ° C , benzene = 12.8 kPa , toluene = 3.85 kPa )
1
The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene
2
The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene
3
The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene
4
The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene
76
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which of the following has longest C – O bond length ? ( Free C - O bond length in CO is 1.128 Å . )
1
[ Co(CO)4]-
2
[ Co(CO)4]-
3
[ Co(CO)4]-
4
[ Co(CO)4]-
77
Chemistry+4 / −1
Among the following , the correct order of acidity is
1
HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
2
HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
3
HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
4
HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
78
Chemistry+4 / −1
In the reaction,
1
X = 2-butyne ; Y = 3-hexyne
2
X = 2-butyne ; Y = 3-hexyne
3
X = 2-butyne ; Y = 3-hexyne
4
X = 2-butyne ; Y = 3-hexyne
79
Chemistry+4 / −1
Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc . H2SO4 and HNO3 . If a large amount of KHSO4 is added to the mixture , the rate of nitration will be
1
slower
2
slower
3
slower
4
slower
80
Chemistry+4 / −1
The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is
1
ketone
2
ketone
3
ketone
4
ketone
81
Chemistry+4 / −1
The pressure ofH2 required to make the potential of H<2/sub> - electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is
1
10-12 atm
2
10-12 atm
3
10-12 atm
4
10-12 atm
82
Chemistry+4 / −1
The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA , respectively is
1
The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2`-deoxyribose
2
The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2`-deoxyribose
3
The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2`-deoxyribose
4
The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2`-deoxyribose
83
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which one given below is a non - reducing sugar ?
1
Lactose
2
Lactose
3
Lactose
4
Lactose
84
Chemistry+4 / −1
Consider the following liquid - vapour equilibrium
Liquid \(\rightleftharpoons\) Vapour
Which of the following relations is correct ?
1
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{dlnP}}{\text{dT}}\) = \(\displaystyle \frac{- \Delta text{H}_v}{\text{RT}}\)
2
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{dlnP}}{\text{dT}}\) = \(\displaystyle \frac{- \Delta text{H}_v}{\text{RT}}\)
3
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{dlnP}}{\text{dT}}\) = \(\displaystyle \frac{- \Delta text{H}_v}{\text{RT}}\)
4
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{dlnP}}{\text{dT}}\) = \(\displaystyle \frac{- \Delta text{H}_v}{\text{RT}}\)
85
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which of the following biphenyls is optically active ?
1
2
3
4
86
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which of the following statements is false ?
1
Ca2+ ions are important in blood clotting
2
Ca2+ ions are important in blood clotting
3
Ca2+ ions are important in blood clotting
4
Ca2+ ions are important in blood clotting
87
Chemistry+4 / −1
The ionic radii of A + and B- ions are 0.98 × 10-10 m and 1.81 × 10-10 m . The coordination number of each ion in AB is
1
4
2
4
3
4
4
4
88
Chemistry+4 / −1
The rate of a first - order reaction is 0.04 mol L-1S-1 at 10 sec and 0.03 mol L-1S-1 at 20 sec after initiation of the reaction . The half - life period of the reaction is
1
34.1 s
2
34.1 s
3
34.1 s
4
34.1 s
89
Chemistry+4 / −1
The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities ?
1
Internal energy
2
Internal energy
3
Internal energy
4
Internal energy
90
Chemistry+4 / −1
Predict the correct order among the following .
1
lone pair - lone pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair
2
lone pair - lone pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair
3
lone pair - lone pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair
4
lone pair - lone pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair
🧬 Biology — 90 Questions
91
Biology+4 / −1
Mitochondria and chloroplast are
I. semi-autonomous organelles
II. formed by the division of pre existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesising machinery
Which one of the following options is correct?
1
II is true but I is false
2
II is true but I is false
3
II is true but I is false
4
II is true but I is false
92
Biology+4 / −1
Chrysophytes, euglenoids, dinoflagellates and slime moulds are included in the kingdom
1
Protista
2
Protista
3
Protista
4
Protista
93
Biology+4 / −1
A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the F1 plants were selfed, the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of
1
1 : 2 : 1; tall heterozygous : tall homozygous : dwarf
2
1 : 2 : 1; tall heterozygous : tall homozygous : dwarf
3
1 : 2 : 1; tall heterozygous : tall homozygous : dwarf
4
1 : 2 : 1; tall heterozygous : tall homozygous : dwarf
94
Biology+4 / −1
Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers
1
ozone
2
ozone
3
ozone
4
ozone
95
Biology+4 / −1
In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the
1
parietal cells
2
parietal cells
3
parietal cells
4
parietal cells
96
Biology+4 / −1
Which of following is wrongly matched in the given table ?
1
2
3
4
97
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is not a stem modification ?
1
Thorns of citrus
2
Thorns of citrus
3
Thorns of citrus
4
Thorns of citrus
98
Biology+4 / −1
Select the incorrect statement
1
LH and FSH triggers ovulation in ovary
2
LH and FSH triggers ovulation in ovary
3
LH and FSH triggers ovulation in ovary
4
LH and FSH triggers ovulation in ovary
99
Biology+4 / −1
One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is
1
peptidoglycan
2
peptidoglycan
3
peptidoglycan
4
peptidoglycan
100
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following statements is not correct ?
1
Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen nectar robbers
2
Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen nectar robbers
3
Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen nectar robbers
4
Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen nectar robbers
101
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells ?
1
Disappearance of nucleolus
2
Disappearance of nucleolus
3
Disappearance of nucleolus
4
Disappearance of nucleolus
102
Biology+4 / −1
In context of amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect ?
1
It is used for prenatal sex determination
2
It is used for prenatal sex determination
3
It is used for prenatal sex determination
4
It is used for prenatal sex determination
103
Biology+4 / −1
The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from
1
Thiobacillus ferrooxidans
2
Thiobacillus ferrooxidans
3
Thiobacillus ferrooxidans
4
Thiobacillus ferrooxidans
104
Biology+4 / −1
The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called
1
pappus
2
pappus
3
pappus
4
pappus
105
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals ?
1
Viviparous - Mammalia
2
Viviparous - Mammalia
3
Viviparous - Mammalia
4
Viviparous - Mammalia
106
Biology+4 / −1
Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of
1
estrogen and inhibin
2
estrogen and inhibin
3
estrogen and inhibin
4
estrogen and inhibin
107
Biology+4 / −1
Microtubules are the constituents of
1
spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia
2
spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia
3
spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia
4
spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia
108
Biology+4 / −1
Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of
1
opsin and retinal
2
opsin and retinal
3
opsin and retinal
4
opsin and retinal
109
Biology+4 / −1
The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the
1
thermoacidophiles
2
thermoacidophiles
3
thermoacidophiles
4
thermoacidophiles
110
Biology+4 / −1
Identify the correct statement on ‘inhibin’.
1
It is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH
2
It is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH
3
It is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH
4
It is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH
111
Biology+4 / −1
It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because
1
small animals have a higher metabolic rate.
2
small animals have a higher metabolic rate.
3
small animals have a higher metabolic rate.
4
small animals have a higher metabolic rate.
112
Biology+4 / −1
Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem ?
1
Least genetic diversity
2
Least genetic diversity
3
Least genetic diversity
4
Least genetic diversity
113
Biology+4 / −1
Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in the flowers of
1
Solanaceae
2
Solanaceae
3
Solanaceae
4
Solanaceae
114
Biology+4 / −1
In which of the following, all the three are macronutrients ?
1
Iron, copper, molybdenum
2
Iron, copper, molybdenum
3
Iron, copper, molybdenum
4
Iron, copper, molybdenum
115
Biology+4 / −1
Reduction in pH of blood will
1
reduce the blood supply to the brain
2
reduce the blood supply to the brain
3
reduce the blood supply to the brain
4
reduce the blood supply to the brain
116
Biology+4 / −1
Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as
1
fatigue
2
fatigue
3
fatigue
4
fatigue
117
Biology+4 / −1
Which one of the following statements is wrong ?
1
Golden algae are also called desmids
2
Golden algae are also called desmids
3
Golden algae are also called desmids
4
Golden algae are also called desmids
118
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?
1
Protease
2
Protease
3
Protease
4
Protease
119
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks ?
1
Liverworts
2
Liverworts
3
Liverworts
4
Liverworts
120
Biology+4 / −1
Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal opening carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements using the following options.
1
Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient of water and CO2 is different
2
Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient of water and CO2 is different
3
Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient of water and CO2 is different
4
Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient of water and CO2 is different
121
Biology+4 / −1
Cotyledon of maize grain is called
1
coleorhiza
2
coleorhiza
3
coleorhiza
4
coleorhiza
122
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum ?
1
Ileocaecal valve
2
Ileocaecal valve
3
Ileocaecal valve
4
Ileocaecal valve
123
Biology+4 / −1
In the mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea ?
1
Dorsal Aorta
2
Dorsal Aorta
3
Dorsal Aorta
4
Dorsal Aorta
124
Biology+4 / −1
The term ecosystem was coined by
1
A G Tansley
2
A G Tansley
3
A G Tansley
4
A G Tansley
125
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of lac operon ?
1
galactose
2
galactose
3
galactose
4
galactose
126
Biology+4 / −1
When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic modal equals zero ? The logistic model is given as
\(\displaystyle \frac{\text{dN}}{\text{dt}}\) = \(\displaystyle \text{rN} \left(\frac{\text{1-N}}{\text{K}}\right)\)
1
when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat
2
when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat
3
when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat
4
when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat
127
Biology+4 / −1
Which one of the following statements is not true ?
1
Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
2
Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
3
Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
4
Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
128
Biology+4 / −1
In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires
1
insects
2
insects
3
insects
4
insects
129
Biology+4 / −1
Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?
1
Chloroplasts
2
Chloroplasts
3
Chloroplasts
4
Chloroplasts
130
Biology+4 / −1
Analogous structures are a result of
1
convergent evolution
2
convergent evolution
3
convergent evolution
4
convergent evolution
131
Biology+4 / −1
Which one of the following statements is wrong ?
1
Cellulose is a polysaccharide
2
Cellulose is a polysaccharide
3
Cellulose is a polysaccharide
4
Cellulose is a polysaccharide
132
Biology+4 / −1
Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the
1
connective
2
connective
3
connective
4
connective
133
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present ?
1
Zinc finger analysis
2
Zinc finger analysis
3
Zinc finger analysis
4
Zinc finger analysis
134
Biology+4 / −1
Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals ?
1
Breathing using lungs
2
Breathing using lungs
3
Breathing using lungs
4
Breathing using lungs
135
Biology+4 / −1
The amino acid, tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of
1
thyroxine and tri - iodothyronine
2
thyroxine and tri - iodothyronine
3
thyroxine and tri - iodothyronine
4
thyroxine and tri - iodothyronine
136
Biology+4 / −1
Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during
1
1970s
2
1970s
3
1970s
4
1970s
137
Biology+4 / −1
A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as
1
polymer
2
polymer
3
polymer
4
polymer
138
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following features is not present in the phylum - Arthropoda?
1
Metameric segmentation
2
Metameric segmentation
3
Metameric segmentation
4
Metameric segmentation
139
Biology+4 / −1
Asthma may be attributed to
1
allergic reaction of most of the cells in the lungs
2
allergic reaction of most of the cells in the lungs
3
allergic reaction of most of the cells in the lungs
4
allergic reaction of most of the cells in the lungs
140
Biology+4 / −1
Pick out the correct statements
I. Haemophilia is a sex linked recessive disease
II . Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy
III . Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder
IV . Sickle cell anaemia is an X linked recessive gene disorder
1
II and IV are correct
2
II and IV are correct
3
II and IV are correct
4
II and IV are correct
141
Biology+4 / −1
The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by
1
phosphodiester bonds
2
phosphodiester bonds
3
phosphodiester bonds
4
phosphodiester bonds
142
Biology+4 / −1
The coconut water from tender coconut represents
1
fleshy mesocarp
2
fleshy mesocarp
3
fleshy mesocarp
4
fleshy mesocarp
143
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids ?
1
Circular structure
2
Circular structure
3
Circular structure
4
Circular structure
144
Biology+4 / −1
Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India ?
1
River dolphin
2
River dolphin
3
River dolphin
4
River dolphin
145
Biology+4 / −1
The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of
1
GA3
2
GA3
3
GA3
4
GA3
146
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction?
1
Alien species invasion
2
Alien species invasion
3
Alien species invasion
4
Alien species invasion
147
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive ?
Microbe: Product
1
Intra uterine devices: Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms
2
Intra uterine devices: Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms
3
Intra uterine devices: Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms
4
Intra uterine devices: Increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms
148
Biology+4 / −1
In a test cross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the recombinant type offspring. This indicates
1
chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
2
chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
3
chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
4
chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis
149
Biology+4 / −1
A typical fat molecule is made up of
1
one glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
2
one glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
3
one glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
4
one glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
150
Biology+4 / −1
Match the terms in Column I with their description in Column II and choose the correct option.
1
A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1
2
A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1
3
A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1
4
A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1
151
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana ?
1
Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
2
Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
3
Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
4
Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
152
Biology+4 / −1
Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are
1
chlorophylls
2
chlorophylls
3
chlorophylls
4
chlorophylls
153
Biology+4 / −1
A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result in
1
polyploidy
2
polyploidy
3
polyploidy
4
polyploidy
154
Biology+4 / −1
A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilisation. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant ?
1
C4
2
C4
3
C4
4
C4
155
Biology+4 / −1
In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to
1
graft rejection
2
graft rejection
3
graft rejection
4
graft rejection
156
Biology+4 / −1
Emerson's enhancement effect and red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of
1
two photosystems operating simultaneously
2
two photosystems operating simultaneously
3
two photosystems operating simultaneously
4
two photosystems operating simultaneously
157
Biology+4 / −1
Select the correct statement
1
Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
2
Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
3
Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
4
Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
158
Biology+4 / −1
Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is
1
more than that in the carotid
2
more than that in the carotid
3
more than that in the carotid
4
more than that in the carotid
159
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following structures is homologous to the wing of a bird ?
1
Wing of a moth
2
Wing of a moth
3
Wing of a moth
4
Wing of a moth
160
Biology+4 / −1
Seed formation without fertilisation in flowering plants involves the process of
1
budding
2
budding
3
budding
4
budding
161
Biology+4 / −1
Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking
1
asthma
2
asthma
3
asthma
4
asthma
162
Biology+4 / −1
Spindle fibres attach on to
1
kinetochore of the chromosome
2
kinetochore of the chromosome
3
kinetochore of the chromosome
4
kinetochore of the chromosome
163
Biology+4 / −1
Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as
1
phyllodes
2
phyllodes
3
phyllodes
4
phyllodes
164
Biology+4 / −1
In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in
1
lumen of thylakoids
2
lumen of thylakoids
3
lumen of thylakoids
4
lumen of thylakoids
165
Biology+4 / −1
Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature ?
1
The first word in a biological name represents the genus name and the second is a specific epithet
2
The first word in a biological name represents the genus name and the second is a specific epithet
3
The first word in a biological name represents the genus name and the second is a specific epithet
4
The first word in a biological name represents the genus name and the second is a specific epithet
166
Biology+4 / −1
In meiosis crossing over is initiated at
1
leptotene
2
leptotene
3
leptotene
4
leptotene
167
Biology+4 / −1
Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain
1
harvested antibodies
2
harvested antibodies
3
harvested antibodies
4
harvested antibodies
168
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia ?
1
X-linked recessive gene disorder
2
X-linked recessive gene disorder
3
X-linked recessive gene disorder
4
X-linked recessive gene disorder
169
Biology+4 / −1
Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita ?
1
Leaf
2
Leaf
3
Leaf
4
Leaf
170
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids ?
1
They are smaller than viruses
2
They are smaller than viruses
3
They are smaller than viruses
4
They are smaller than viruses
171
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations ?
1
Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor
2
Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor
3
Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor
4
Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor
172
Biology+4 / −1
Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location ?
1
Areolar tissue - Tendons
2
Areolar tissue - Tendons
3
Areolar tissue - Tendons
4
Areolar tissue - Tendons
173
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other ?
1
Insulin - Glucagon
2
Insulin - Glucagon
3
Insulin - Glucagon
4
Insulin - Glucagon
174
Biology+4 / −1
Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called
1
subsidiary cells
2
subsidiary cells
3
subsidiary cells
4
subsidiary cells
175
Biology+4 / −1
Fertilisation in humans is practically feasible only if
1
the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic junction of the fallopian tube
2
the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic junction of the fallopian tube
3
the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic junction of the fallopian tube
4
the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic junction of the fallopian tube
176
Biology+4 / −1
Which one of the following is the start codon ?
1
UGA
2
UGA
3
UGA
4
UGA
177
Biology+4 / −1
A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in
1
increased population of aquatic food web organisms
2
increased population of aquatic food web organisms
3
increased population of aquatic food web organisms
4
increased population of aquatic food web organisms
178
Biology+4 / −1
Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life
I. The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes
II. The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen
Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct ?
1
II is correct but I is false
2
II is correct but I is false
3
II is correct but I is false
4
II is correct but I is false
179
Biology+4 / −1
A system of rotating crops with legume or grass pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is called
1
contour farming
2
contour farming
3
contour farming
4
contour farming
180
Biology+4 / −1
Gause’s principle of competitive exclusion states that
1
competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences
2
competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences
3
competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences
4
competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences