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⚛️ Physics — 50 Questions
1
Physics+4 / −1
A particle of mass \(' m '\) is projected with a velocity \(v = kV_e\left(k < 1\right)\) from the surface of the earth.(\(V_e\) = escape velocity). The maximum height above the surface reached by the particle is
1
\(\displaystyle R\left(\frac{k}{1 − k}\right)^2\)
2
\(\displaystyle R\left(\frac{k}{1 − k}\right)^2\)
3
\(\displaystyle R\left(\frac{k}{1 − k}\right)^2\)
4
\(\displaystyle R\left(\frac{k}{1 − k}\right)^2\)
2
Physics+4 / −1
If E and G respectively denote energy and gravitational constant, then E/G has the dimensions of
1
[M2] [L−1] [T 0]
2
[M2] [L−1] [T 0]
3
[M2] [L−1] [T 0]
4
[M2] [L−1] [T 0]
3
Physics+4 / −1
A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire Main scale reading : 0 mm Circular scale reading : 52 divisions Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire from the above data is
1
0.52 cm
2
0.52 cm
3
0.52 cm
4
0.52 cm
4
Physics+4 / −1
From a circular ring of mass ' M ' and radius ' R ' an arc corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The moment of inertia of the remaining partof the ring about an axis passing through the centre of the ring and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is ' K ' times ′M R2'. Then the value of ' K ' is
1
\(\displaystyle \frac{3}{4}\)
2
\(\displaystyle \frac{3}{4}\)
3
\(\displaystyle \frac{3}{4}\)
4
\(\displaystyle \frac{3}{4}\)
5
Physics+4 / −1
A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a uniform speed takes a time T to complete one revolution. If this particle were projected with the same speed at an angle ' θ ' to the horizontal, the maximum height attained by it equals 4R. The angle of projection, θ, is then given by:
The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d when dropped in a container filled with glycerine becomes constant after some time. If the density of glycerine is d/2, then the viscous force acting on the ball will be
1
\(\displaystyle \frac{Mg}{2}\)
2
\(\displaystyle \frac{Mg}{2}\)
3
\(\displaystyle \frac{Mg}{2}\)
4
\(\displaystyle \frac{Mg}{2}\)
7
Physics+4 / −1
The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 h. The fraction of original activity that will remain after 150 h would be
1
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\)
2
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\)
3
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\)
4
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\)
8
Physics+4 / −1
Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic conductor. Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match Column-I and Column-II with appropriate relations.
1
(A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q)
2
(A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q)
3
(A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q)
4
(A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q)
9
Physics+4 / −1
An electromagnetic wave of wavelength ' λ ' is incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible work function. If ' m ' mass is of photoelectron emitted from the surface has de-Broglie wavelength \(λ_d\) , then
A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries current 'I' uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to the cable with the distance 'r' from the axis of the cable is represented by
1
2
3
4
11
Physics+4 / −1
Find the value of the angle of emergence from the prism. Refractive index of the glass is 3.
1
\(60^\circ\)
2
\(60^\circ\)
3
\(60^\circ\)
4
\(60^\circ\)
12
Physics+4 / −1
The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is \(v\). The escape velocity from the surface of another planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and same mass density is
1
\(v\)
2
\(v\)
3
\(v\)
4
\(v\)
13
Physics+4 / −1
If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the dimensions of energy.
1
[F ] [A] [T ]
2
[F ] [A] [T ]
3
[F ] [A] [T ]
4
[F ] [A] [T ]
14
Physics+4 / −1
A convex lens A of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens B of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with a distance d between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on A leaves B as a parallel beam, then the distance d
(in cm) will be
1
25
2
25
3
25
4
25
15
Physics+4 / −1
A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a
plane mirror were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image would be formed at
a distance of
1
20 cm from the lens, it would be a
real image
2
20 cm from the lens, it would be a
real image
3
20 cm from the lens, it would be a
real image
4
20 cm from the lens, it would be a
real image
16
Physics+4 / −1
A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best suited as an objective of an astronomical
telescope, since
1
a large aperture contributes to the
quality and visibility of the images
2
a large aperture contributes to the
quality and visibility of the images
3
a large aperture contributes to the
quality and visibility of the images
4
a large aperture contributes to the
quality and visibility of the images
17
Physics+4 / −1
A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane, starting from rest at time t = 0. Let \(S_n\) be the distance travelled by the block in the interval \(t\, =\, n − 1\) to \(t\, =\, n\). Then, the ratio \(\displaystyle \frac{S_n}{S_{n+1}}\) is
1
\(\displaystyle \frac{2n − 1}{2n}\)
2
\(\displaystyle \frac{2n − 1}{2n}\)
3
\(\displaystyle \frac{2n − 1}{2n}\)
4
\(\displaystyle \frac{2n − 1}{2n}\)
18
Physics+4 / −1
A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2. At t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of the ball at t = 6 s?(Take g = 10 m/s2)
1
\(20\, m/s,\, 5 m/s^2\)
2
\(20\, m/s,\, 5 m/s^2\)
3
\(20\, m/s,\, 5 m/s^2\)
4
\(20\, m/s,\, 5 m/s^2\)
19
Physics+4 / −1
The number of photons per second on an average emitted by the source of monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of \(3.3 × 10^{−3}\) watt will be \((h = 6.6 × 10^{−34}J s)\)
1
\(10^{18}\)
2
\(10^{18}\)
3
\(10^{18}\)
4
\(10^{18}\)
20
Physics+4 / −1
Match Column l with Column ll andchoose the correct match fromthegiven choices.
1
A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
2
A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
3
A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
4
A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
21
Physics+4 / −1
A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In which direction will it move?
1
Towards the left as its potential energy will increase
2
Towards the left as its potential energy will increase
3
Towards the left as its potential energy will increase
4
Towards the left as its potential energy will increase
22
Physics+4 / −1
Polar molecules are the molecules
1
having zero dipole moment
2
having zero dipole moment
3
having zero dipole moment
4
having zero dipole moment
23
Physics+4 / −1
The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor is the same ashole concentration in a p-type semiconductor. An external field(electric) is applied across each of them. Compare the currents in them.
1
Current in n-type = current in p-type
2
Current in n-type = current in p-type
3
Current in n-type = current in p-type
4
Current in n-type = current in p-type
24
Physics+4 / −1
Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer. (A). A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when used as a voltage regulator. (B). The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 0.1 V to 0.3 V.
1
(A) and (B) both are correct.
2
(A) and (B) both are correct.
3
(A) and (B) both are correct.
4
(A) and (B) both are correct.
25
Physics+4 / −1
For the given circuit, the input digital signals are applied at theterminals A, B and C. What would be the output at the terminal y ?
1
2
3
4
26
Physics+4 / −1
A step down transformer connected to an ac mains supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the current in the primary circuit?
1
0.2 A
2
0.2 A
3
0.2 A
4
0.2 A
27
Physics+4 / −1
Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2 are placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding. If R1 > R2, the mutual inductance M between them will be directly proportional to
1
\(\displaystyle \frac{R_1}{R_2}\)
2
\(\displaystyle \frac{R_1}{R_2}\)
3
\(\displaystyle \frac{R_1}{R_2}\)
4
\(\displaystyle \frac{R_1}{R_2}\)
28
Physics+4 / −1
A body is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency\(\, 'n'\), the frequency of its potential energy is
1
\(n\)
2
\(n\)
3
\(n\)
4
\(n\)
29
Physics+4 / −1
A radioactive nucleus \({}^{A}_{z}X\) undergoes spontaneous decay in the sequence \({}^{A}_{z}X \, \rightarrow \, {}_{z-1}B \, \rightarrow \, {}_{z-3}C \, \rightarrow \, {}_{z-2}D\) where Z is the atomic number of element X. The possible decay particles in the sequence are
1
\(\alpha,\, \beta^-,\, \beta^+\)
2
\(\alpha,\, \beta^-,\, \beta^+\)
3
\(\alpha,\, \beta^-,\, \beta^+\)
4
\(\alpha,\, \beta^-,\, \beta^+\)
30
Physics+4 / −1
The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in the figure is
1
\(3\,C\)
2
\(3\,C\)
3
\(3\,C\)
4
\(3\,C\)
31
Physics+4 / −1
A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two fragments each of mass number 120, the binding energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in the binding energy in the process is
1
0.9 MeV
2
0.9 MeV
3
0.9 MeV
4
0.9 MeV
32
Physics+4 / −1
Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface charge densities of the spheres (σ1/σ2) is
1
\(\displaystyle \frac{R_1}{R_2}\)
2
\(\displaystyle \frac{R_1}{R_2}\)
3
\(\displaystyle \frac{R_1}{R_2}\)
4
\(\displaystyle \frac{R_1}{R_2}\)
33
Physics+4 / −1
A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field ' \(\vec{F}\) ' in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is ' d ' and the area of each plate is ' A ', the energy stored in the capacitor is ( ε0 = permittivity of free space)
1
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}ε_0E^2\)
2
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}ε_0E^2\)
3
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}ε_0E^2\)
4
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}ε_0E^2\)
34
Physics+4 / −1
Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.
1
660 V
2
660 V
3
660 V
4
660 V
35
Physics+4 / −1
A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height.The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is (g = 10 m/s2) nearly
1
0 kg m/s
2
0 kg m/s
3
0 kg m/s
4
0 kg m/s
36
Physics+4 / −1
A cup of coffee cools from \(90^\circ C\) to \(80^\circ C\) in t minutes, when the room temperature is \(20^\circ C\). The time taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from \(80^\circ C\) to \(60^\circ C\) at a room temperature same at \(20^\circ C\) is
1
\(\displaystyle \frac{5}{13}\, t\)
2
\(\displaystyle \frac{5}{13}\, t\)
3
\(\displaystyle \frac{5}{13}\, t\)
4
\(\displaystyle \frac{5}{13}\, t\)
37
Physics+4 / −1
A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 Kg is suspended by it is
1
0.628 S
2
0.628 S
3
0.628 S
4
0.628 S
38
Physics+4 / −1
The effective resistance of a parallel connection that consists of four
wires of equal length, equal area of cross-section and same material is
0.25 Ω . What will be the effective resistance if they are connected in
series?
1
0.25 Ω
2
0.25 Ω
3
0.25 Ω
4
0.25 Ω
39
Physics+4 / −1
In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives balance point at 36
cm length of wire. If another cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell,
then at what length of the wire, the balance point occurs?
1
60 cm
2
60 cm
3
60 cm
4
60 cm
40
Physics+4 / −1
Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 are connected as shownin the given circuit. The ratio \(\displaystyle \frac{i_3}{i_1}\)of currents in terms of resistances usedin the circuit is
1
\(\displaystyle \frac{r_1}{r_2 + r_3}\)
2
\(\displaystyle \frac{r_1}{r_2 + r_3}\)
3
\(\displaystyle \frac{r_1}{r_2 + r_3}\)
4
\(\displaystyle \frac{r_1}{r_2 + r_3}\)
41
Physics+4 / −1
A uniform conducting wire of length \(12\,a\) and resistance 'R' is wound up as a current carrying coil in the shape of, (i) an equilateral triangle of side 'a'. (ii) a square of side 'a'. The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each case respectively are
1
\(\sqrt{3}\, Ia^2\) and \(3\, I_a^2\)
2
\(\sqrt{3}\, Ia^2\) and \(3\, I_a^2\)
3
\(\sqrt{3}\, Ia^2\) and \(3\, I_a^2\)
4
\(\sqrt{3}\, Ia^2\) and \(3\, I_a^2\)
42
Physics+4 / −1
A capacitor of capacitance ' C ', is connected across an ac source of voltage V, given by \( \text{V}\, =\, V_0\, sin\, \omega t\). The displacement current between the plates of the capacitor, would then be given by
1
\(I_d\, =\, V_0\, \epsilon \, C \, cos\, \omega t \)
2
\(I_d\, =\, V_0\, \epsilon \, C \, cos\, \omega t \)
3
\(I_d\, =\, V_0\, \epsilon \, C \, cos\, \omega t \)
4
\(I_d\, =\, V_0\, \epsilon \, C \, cos\, \omega t \)
43
Physics+4 / −1
For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in x-direction, which oneof the following combination gives the correct possible directions forelectric field (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively?
1
\(\hat{j}+\hat{k},\, \hat{j}+\hat{k}\)
2
\(\hat{j}+\hat{k},\, \hat{j}+\hat{k}\)
3
\(\hat{j}+\hat{k},\, \hat{j}+\hat{k}\)
4
\(\hat{j}+\hat{k},\, \hat{j}+\hat{k}\)
44
Physics+4 / −1
An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of capacitance C and a resistor of resistance ' R ' are connected in series to an ac source of potential difference 'V' volts as shown in figure. Potential difference across L, C and R is 40V , 10 V and 40V ,respectively. The amplitude of current flowing through C R series circuit is \(10\, \sqrt{2}\) A. The impedance of the circuit is
1
\(4\, \sqrt{2}\, \Omega\)
2
\(4\, \sqrt{2}\, \Omega\)
3
\(4\, \sqrt{2}\, \Omega\)
4
\(4\, \sqrt{2}\, \Omega\)
45
Physics+4 / −1
A series L-C-R circuit containing \(5.0\, \text{H}\) inductor, \(80\, \mu \text{F}\) capacitor and \(40\, \Omega\) resistor is connected to 230 V variable frequency AC source.The angular frequencies of the source at which power transferred to the circuit is half the power at the resonant angular frequency are likely to be
1
25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
2
25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
3
25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
4
25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
46
Physics+4 / −1
An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current of 5A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed of 105 m ∕ s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular distance between the electron and the conductor is 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced by the electron at that instant.
1
4 × 10−20 N
2
4 × 10−20 N
3
4 × 10−20 N
4
4 × 10−20 N
47
Physics+4 / −1
In the product \(\vec{F} = q \left(\vec{v} × \vec{B}\right) = q\vec{v} × \left( B\hat{i} + B\hat{j} + B_0\hat{k}\right)\) For q = 1 and \(\vec{v} = 2\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} + 6\hat{k}\) and \(\vec{F} = 4\hat{i} - 20\hat{j} + 12\hat{k}\) What will be the complete expression for \(\vec{B}\)
1
\(-8\hat{i} - 8\hat{j} - 6\hat{k}\)
2
\(-8\hat{i} - 8\hat{j} - 6\hat{k}\)
3
\(-8\hat{i} - 8\hat{j} - 6\hat{k}\)
4
\(-8\hat{i} - 8\hat{j} - 6\hat{k}\)
48
Physics+4 / −1
A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and another unknown mass 'm' is suspended from the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the value of 'm' such that the rod is in equilibrium. (g = 10 m/s2)
1
1 / 2 kg
2
1 / 2 kg
3
1 / 2 kg
4
1 / 2 kg
49
Physics+4 / −1
A particle is released from height S from the surface of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is three times its potential energy. The height from the surface of earth and the speed of the particle at thatinstant are respectively
Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate aturbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% of the input energy.How much power is generated by the turbine?(g = 10 m/s2 )
1
10.2 kW
2
10.2 kW
3
10.2 kW
4
10.2 kW
🧪 Chemistry — 50 Questions
51
Chemistry+4 / −1
The correct structure of 2, 6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene
is:
1
2
3
4
52
Chemistry+4 / −1
Noble gases are named because of their inertness
towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement
about them.
1
Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water
2
Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water
3
Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water
4
Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water
53
Chemistry+4 / −1
What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound formed in the following chemical reaction ?
1
2-methyl propan-2-ol
2
2-methyl propan-2-ol
3
2-methyl propan-2-ol
4
2-methyl propan-2-ol
54
Chemistry+4 / −1
Match List -I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
1
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
2
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
3
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
4
(a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
55
Chemistry+4 / −1
Choose the correct option for graphical
representation of Boyle's law, which shows a graph
of pressure vs. volume of a gas at different
temperatures:
1
2
3
4
56
Chemistry+4 / −1
Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order given as HF << HCI << HBr << HI. Statement II : As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength increases. In the light of the above statements, choose thecorrect answer from the options given below.
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
3
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
4
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
57
Chemistry+4 / −1
Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg's reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali:
1
2
3
4
58
Chemistry+4 / −1
Match List-I with List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1
(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
2
(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
3
(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
4
(a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
59
Chemistry+4 / −1
The product formed from the following chemical reaction is
1
2
3
4
60
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature?
1
POCl3
2
POCl3
3
POCl3
4
POCl3
61
Chemistry+4 / −1
Given below are two statements: Statement I : Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics. Statement II : Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesine In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
3
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
4
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
62
Chemistry+4 / −1
BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. Hybridization and number of electrons around the central atom, respectively are:
1
sp3 and 4
2
sp3 and 4
3
sp3 and 4
4
sp3 and 4
63
Chemistry+4 / −1
The molar conductance of NaCl, HCI and
CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91.0 S cm2 mol-1 respectively. The molar conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is.
Choose the right option for your answer.
1
201.28 S cm2 mol-1
2
201.28 S cm2 mol-1
3
201.28 S cm2 mol-1
4
201.28 S cm2 mol-1
64
Chemistry+4 / −1
The right option for the statement "Tyndall effect is exhibited by", is:
1
NaCl solution
2
NaCl solution
3
NaCl solution
4
NaCl solution
65
Chemistry+4 / −1
The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of:
1
Vitamin B12
2
Vitamin B12
3
Vitamin B12
4
Vitamin B12
66
Chemistry+4 / −1
Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane
is:
1
120°
2
120°
3
120°
4
120°
67
Chemistry+4 / −1
The incorrect statement among the following is :
1
Actinoid contraction is greater for element to
element than Lanthanoid contraction.
2
Actinoid contraction is greater for element to
element than Lanthanoid contraction.
3
Actinoid contraction is greater for element to
element than Lanthanoid contraction.
4
Actinoid contraction is greater for element to
element than Lanthanoid contraction.
68
Chemistry+4 / −1
The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product formation is based on?
1
Saytzeff's Rule
2
Saytzeff's Rule
3
Saytzeff's Rule
4
Saytzeff's Rule
69
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which one among the following is the correct option for right relationship between CP and CV for one mole of ideal gas ?
1
CP + CV= R
2
CP + CV= R
3
CP + CV= R
4
CP + CV= R
70
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which one of the following polymers is prepared by addition polymerisation?
1
Teflon
2
Teflon
3
Teflon
4
Teflon
71
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which one of the following methods can be used to obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room
temperature?
1
Electrolysis
2
Electrolysis
3
Electrolysis
4
Electrolysis
72
Chemistry+4 / −1
The major product of the following chemical
reaction is:
1
2
3
4
73
Chemistry+4 / −1
Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emitswhich of the following particles ?
1
Beta \( \beta^-\)
2
Beta \( \beta^-\)
3
Beta \( \beta^-\)
4
Beta \( \beta^-\)
74
Chemistry+4 / −1
The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C-X' bond is
1
CH3-F< CH3-Cl< CH3-Br < CH3-I
2
CH3-F< CH3-Cl< CH3-Br < CH3-I
3
CH3-F< CH3-Cl< CH3-Br < CH3-I
4
CH3-F< CH3-Cl< CH3-Br < CH3-I
75
Chemistry+4 / −1
Right option for the number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are:
1
8, 4
2
8, 4
3
8, 4
4
8, 4
76
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction? Choose the right option.
1
2
3
4
77
Chemistry+4 / −1
The pKb of dimethylamine and pka of acetic acid are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate solution is:
1
8.50
2
8.50
3
8.50
4
8.50
78
Chemistry+4 / −1
Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents is:
1
Calcium chloride
2
Calcium chloride
3
Calcium chloride
4
Calcium chloride
79
Chemistry+4 / −1
The maximum temperature that can be achieved in blast furnace is:
1
upto 1200 K
2
upto 1200 K
3
upto 1200 K
4
upto 1200 K
80
Chemistry+4 / −1
Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
1
Hexadentate ligand with four 'O and two N
donor atoms
2
Hexadentate ligand with four 'O and two N
donor atoms
3
Hexadentate ligand with four 'O and two N
donor atoms
4
Hexadentate ligand with four 'O and two N
donor atoms
81
Chemistry+4 / −1
The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1), 10 gof urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and 10 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3). The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is :
1
P2 > P1 > P3
2
P2 > P1 > P3
3
P2 > P1 > P3
4
P2 > P1 > P3
82
Chemistry+4 / −1
The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and vapour phase, are:
1
Chain and dimer, respectively
2
Chain and dimer, respectively
3
Chain and dimer, respectively
4
Chain and dimer, respectively
83
Chemistry+4 / −1
For a reaction A → B, enthalpy of reaction is -4.2 kJ mol-1 and enthalpy of activation is 9.6 kJ mol-1. The correct potential energy profle for the reaction is shown in option.
1
2
3
4
84
Chemistry+4 / −1
Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of :
1
belonging to same group
2
belonging to same group
3
belonging to same group
4
belonging to same group
85
Chemistry+4 / −1
A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi, broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light c=3.0 × 108 ms-1]
1
219.3 m
2
219.3 m
3
219.3 m
4
219.3 m
86
Chemistry+4 / −1
An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option for the empirical formula of this compound is [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]
1
CH
2
CH
3
CH
4
CH
87
Chemistry+4 / −1
The compound which shows metamerism is :
1
C5H12
2
C5H12
3
C5H12
4
C5H12
88
Chemistry+4 / −1
The correct option for the number of body centred unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells is:
1
7
2
7
3
7
4
7
89
Chemistry+4 / −1
Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined in a total volume of one litre at 0°C is:
[Given R=0.082 L atm mol-1K-1, T= 273K]
1
2.518
2
2.518
3
2.518
4
2.518
90
Chemistry+4 / −1
Consider the above reaction and identify the
missing reagent/chemical.
1
B2H6
2
B2H6
3
B2H6
4
B2H6
91
Chemistry+4 / −1
For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, the correct option is
1
2
3
4
92
Chemistry+4 / −1
In which one of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the properties indicated against it ?
1
HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Increasing acidic strength
2
HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Increasing acidic strength
3
HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Increasing acidic strength
4
HF < HCl < HBr < HI : Increasing acidic strength
93
Chemistry+4 / −1
The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 S cm2 mol-1, What is the dissociation constant of acetic acid ? Choose the correct option.
1
1.75 x 10-4 mol L-1
2
1.75 x 10-4 mol L-1
3
1.75 x 10-4 mol L-1
4
1.75 x 10-4 mol L-1
94
Chemistry+4 / −1
The slope of Arrhenius Plot \(\left(\,ln\,k\,v/s\,\frac{1}{T}\right)\) of first order reaction is -5 x 103 K. The value of Ea of the reaction is. Choose the correct option.
[Given R=8.314 JK-1mol-1]
1
41.5 kJ mol-1
2
41.5 kJ mol-1
3
41.5 kJ mol-1
4
41.5 kJ mol-1
95
Chemistry+4 / −1
Match List-I with List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
2
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
3
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
4
(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
96
Chemistry+4 / −1
From the following pairs of ions which one is not an iso-electronic pair?
1
O2-,F-
2
O2-,F-
3
O2-,F-
4
O2-,F-
97
Chemistry+4 / −1
The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in molar ratio 3: 2 is :
[At 45°C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg, Assume Ideal gas]
1
160 mm of Hg
2
160 mm of Hg
3
160 mm of Hg
4
160 mm of Hg
98
Chemistry+4 / −1
Match List-I with List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
2
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
3
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
4
(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
99
Chemistry+4 / −1
The reagent 'R' in the given sequence of chemical reaction is
1
H2O
2
H2O
3
H2O
4
H2O
100
Chemistry+4 / −1
The intermediate compound "X" in the following chemical reaction is :
1
2
3
4
🧬 Biology — 100 Questions
101
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following secretes the hormone,
relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?
Match List - I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
1
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
2
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
3
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
4
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
104
Biology+4 / −1
Match List -I with List - II.
1
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
2
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
3
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
4
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
105
Biology+4 / −1
Match List -I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
2
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
3
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
4
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
106
Biology+4 / −1
A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:
1
8-nucleate and 7-celled
2
8-nucleate and 7-celled
3
8-nucleate and 7-celled
4
8-nucleate and 7-celled
107
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following statements is correct?
1
Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
2
Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
3
Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
4
Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
108
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1
During aerobic respiration, the role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage.
2
During aerobic respiration, the role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage.
3
During aerobic respiration, the role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage.
4
During aerobic respiration, the role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage.
109
Biology+4 / −1
Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for B-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E. coli strain
1
It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell.
2
It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell.
3
It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell.
4
It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell.
110
Biology+4 / −1
The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are:
1
Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
2
Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
3
Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
4
Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
111
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification in crops?
1
Improve protein content
2
Improve protein content
3
Improve protein content
4
Improve protein content
112
Biology+4 / −1
Read the following statements.
(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.
(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
1
(c), (d) and (e) are correct
2
(c), (d) and (e) are correct
3
(c), (d) and (e) are correct
4
(c), (d) and (e) are correct
113
Biology+4 / −1
If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it?
1
T: 20; G: 30; C: 20
2
T: 20; G: 30; C: 20
3
T: 20; G: 30; C: 20
4
T: 20; G: 30; C: 20
114
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroaches?
1
A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction
of midgut and hindgut.
2
A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction
of midgut and hindgut.
3
A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction
of midgut and hindgut.
4
A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction
of midgut and hindgut.
115
Biology+4 / −1
The partial pressures (in mmHg) of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are:
1
pO2 =104 and pCO2 = 40
2
pO2 =104 and pCO2 = 40
3
pO2 =104 and pCO2 = 40
4
pO2 =104 and pCO2 = 40
116
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is not a step in Multiple
Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?
1
Cow is administered hormone having LH Iike
activity for superovulation
2
Cow is administered hormone having LH Iike
activity for superovulation
3
Cow is administered hormone having LH Iike
activity for superovulation
4
Cow is administered hormone having LH Iike
activity for superovulation
117
Biology+4 / −1
During muscular contraction which of the following
events occur?
(a) H zone disappears
(b) 'A' band widens
(c) T band reduces in width
(d) Myosin hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and
Pi
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
1
(a), (c), (d), (e) only
2
(a), (c), (d), (e) only
3
(a), (c), (d), (e) only
4
(a), (c), (d), (e) only
118
Biology+4 / −1
Following are the statements with reference to
"lipids'.
(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called
unsaturated fatty acids.
(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including
carboxyl carbon.
(e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1
(a) and (b) only
2
(a) and (b) only
3
(a) and (b) only
4
(a) and (b) only
119
Biology+4 / −1
Which one of the following statements about
Histones is wrong?
1
Histones are organized to form a unit of 8
molecules.
2
Histones are organized to form a unit of 8
molecules.
3
Histones are organized to form a unit of 8
molecules.
4
Histones are organized to form a unit of 8
molecules.
120
Biology+4 / −1
Match List-I with List-II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
2
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
3
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
4
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
121
Biology+4 / −1
Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop
the leakage of the substances across a tissue and
facilitate communication with neighbouring cells
via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
1
Gap junctions and Adhering junctions,
respectively.
2
Gap junctions and Adhering junctions,
respectively.
3
Gap junctions and Adhering junctions,
respectively.
4
Gap junctions and Adhering junctions,
respectively.
122
Biology+4 / −1
Following are the statements about prostomium
of earthworm.
(a) It serves as a covering for the mouth.
(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it
can crawl.
(c) It is one of the sensory structures.
(d) It is the first body segment.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
1
(a), (b) and (c) are correct
2
(a), (b) and (c) are correct
3
(a), (b) and (c) are correct
4
(a), (b) and (c) are correct
123
Biology+4 / −1
The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into:
1
Dysfunction of Immune system
2
Dysfunction of Immune system
3
Dysfunction of Immune system
4
Dysfunction of Immune system
124
Biology+4 / −1
Statement I: The codon 'AUG' codes for methionine
and phenylalanine.
Statement II: 'AAA' and 'AAG both codons code
for the amino acid lysine.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
3
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
4
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
125
Biology+4 / −1
Assertion (A): A person goes to high altitude and
experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like
breathing difficulty and heart palpitations.
Reason (R): Due to low atmospheric pressure at
high altitude, the body does not get sufficient
Oxygen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
1
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
2
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
3
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
4
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
126
Biology+4 / −1
Match List-I with List-II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1
(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
2
(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
3
(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
4
(a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
127
Biology+4 / −1
Match List-I with List-II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c)- (iii), (d) - (ii)
2
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c)- (iii), (d) - (ii)
3
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c)- (iii), (d) - (ii)
4
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c)- (iii), (d) - (ii)
128
Biology+4 / −1
Which of these is not an important component of
initiation of parturition in humans?
1
Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
2
Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
3
Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
4
Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
129
Biology+4 / −1
Match List-I with List-II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
2
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
3
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
4
(a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
130
Biology+4 / −1
Mutations in plant cells can be induced by:
1
Kinetin
2
Kinetin
3
Kinetin
4
Kinetin
131
Biology+4 / −1
Match List -I with List -II
Select the correct answer from the options given
below.
1
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
2
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
3
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
4
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
132
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps
in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
1
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
2
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
3
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
4
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
133
Biology+4 / −1
Match List - I with List - II
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
1
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
2
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
3
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
4
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
134
Biology+4 / −1
The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is:
1
Xenogamy
2
Xenogamy
3
Xenogamy
4
Xenogamy
135
Biology+4 / −1
DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as:
1
Yellow bands
2
Yellow bands
3
Yellow bands
4
Yellow bands
136
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
1
Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles.
2
Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles.
3
Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles.
4
Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles.
137
Biology+4 / −1
Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival?
1
Resource partitioning
2
Resource partitioning
3
Resource partitioning
4
Resource partitioning
138
Biology+4 / −1
Gemmae are present in:
1
Mosses
2
Mosses
3
Mosses
4
Mosses
139
Biology+4 / −1
The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood from a diagram called:
1
Bullet square
2
Bullet square
3
Bullet square
4
Bullet square
140
Biology+4 / −1
Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two
kinds of spores. Such plants are known as:
1
Homosorus
2
Homosorus
3
Homosorus
4
Homosorus
141
Biology+4 / −1
The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is referred as:
1
Climax
2
Climax
3
Climax
4
Climax
142
Biology+4 / −1
Amensalism can be represented as :
1
Species A (-); Species B (0)
2
Species A (-); Species B (0)
3
Species A (-); Species B (0)
4
Species A (-); Species B (0)
143
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
1
Molecular diagnosis
2
Molecular diagnosis
3
Molecular diagnosis
4
Molecular diagnosis
144
Biology+4 / −1
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :
1
RNA
2
RNA
3
RNA
4
RNA
145
Biology+4 / −1
In the equation GPP-R= NPP R represents:
1
Radiant energy
2
Radiant energy
3
Radiant energy
4
Radiant energy
146
Biology+4 / −1
The first stable product of C02 fixation in sorghum is:
1
Pyruvic acid
2
Pyruvic acid
3
Pyruvic acid
4
Pyruvic acid
147
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?
1
Green algae
2
Green algae
3
Green algae
4
Green algae
148
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following statements is not correct?
1
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
2
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
3
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
4
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
149
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants?
1
Morphine, codeine
2
Morphine, codeine
3
Morphine, codeine
4
Morphine, codeine
150
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material?
1
Ectocarpus
2
Ectocarpus
3
Ectocarpus
4
Ectocarpus
151
Biology+4 / −1
Diadelphous stamens are found in:
1
China rose
2
China rose
3
China rose
4
China rose
152
Biology+4 / −1
When gene targeting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease, it is known as:
1
Biopiracy
2
Biopiracy
3
Biopiracy
4
Biopiracy
153
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
1
Metaphase I
2
Metaphase I
3
Metaphase I
4
Metaphase I
154
Biology+4 / −1
Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called:
1
Elasticity
2
Elasticity
3
Elasticity
4
Elasticity
155
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following plants is monoecious?
1
Carica papaya
2
Carica papaya
3
Carica papaya
4
Carica papaya
156
Biology+4 / −1
When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as:
1
Metacentric
2
Metacentric
3
Metacentric
4
Metacentric
157
Biology+4 / −1
The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is:
1
Shoot apex
2
Shoot apex
3
Shoot apex
4
Shoot apex
158
Biology+4 / −1
The factor that leads to Founder effect in population is:
1
Natural selection
2
Natural selection
3
Natural selection
4
Natural selection
159
Biology+4 / −1
The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field is:
1
IAA
2
IAA
3
IAA
4
IAA
160
Biology+4 / −1
Match Column -I with Column - II Choose the correct answer from options given below:
1
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
2
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
3
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
4
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
161
Biology+4 / −1
Select the correct pair.
1
Large colorless empty cells in the epidermis of grass leaves - Subsidiary Cells
2
Large colorless empty cells in the epidermis of grass leaves - Subsidiary Cells
3
Large colorless empty cells in the epidermis of grass leaves - Subsidiary Cells
4
Large colorless empty cells in the epidermis of grass leaves - Subsidiary Cells
162
Biology+4 / −1
Identify the correct statement.
1
In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is
added to the 3` end of hnRNA.
2
In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is
added to the 3` end of hnRNA.
3
In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is
added to the 3` end of hnRNA.
4
In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is
added to the 3` end of hnRNA.
163
Biology+4 / −1
In the exponential growth equation Nt = N0erte represents:
1
The base of number logarithms
2
The base of number logarithms
3
The base of number logarithms
4
The base of number logarithms
164
Biology+4 / −1
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes?
1
Transcribes rRNAs (28 S,18 S and 5.8 S)
2
Transcribes rRNAs (28 S,18 S and 5.8 S)
3
Transcribes rRNAs (28 S,18 S and 5.8 S)
4
Transcribes rRNAs (28 S,18 S and 5.8 S)
165
Biology+4 / −1
In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release?
1
Poaceae; Rosaceae
2
Poaceae; Rosaceae
3
Poaceae; Rosaceae
4
Poaceae; Rosaceae
166
Biology+4 / −1
Match List -I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
1
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
2
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
3
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
4
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
167
Biology+4 / −1
Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA ina clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because:
1
Mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film.
2
Mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film.
3
Mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film.
4
Mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film.
168
Biology+4 / −1
Match Column -I with Column-II.
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
1
(a) -(iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
2
(a) -(iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
3
(a) -(iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
4
(a) -(iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
169
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1
Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
2
Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
3
Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
4
Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
170
Biology+4 / −1
Match List -I with List - II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
2
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
3
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
4
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
171
Biology+4 / −1
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as:
1
Satellite DNA
2
Satellite DNA
3
Satellite DNA
4
Satellite DNA
172
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle?
1
These muscle have no striations
2
These muscle have no striations
3
These muscle have no striations
4
These muscle have no striations
173
Biology+4 / −1
With regard to insulin choose correct options.
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide.
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide.
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
1
(b) and (d) only
2
(b) and (d) only
3
(b) and (d) only
4
(b) and (d) only
174
Biology+4 / −1
Veneral diseases can spread through:
(a) Using sterile needles
(b) Transfusion of blood from infected person
(c) Infected mother to foetus
(d) Kissing
(e) Inheritance
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
1
(a), (b) and (c) only
2
(a), (b) and (c) only
3
(a), (b) and (c) only
4
(a), (b) and (c) only
175
Biology+4 / −1
Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
1
High pO2 , low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature
2
High pO2 , low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature
3
High pO2 , low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature
4
High pO2 , low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature
176
Biology+4 / −1
Match List-I with List-II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
2
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
3
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
4
(a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
177
Biology+4 / −1
In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
1
50%
2
50%
3
50%
4
50%
178
Biology+4 / −1
Match List-I with List-II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
2
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
3
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
4
(a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
179
Biology+4 / −1
Sphincter of oddi is present at:
1
Ileo-caecal junction
2
Ileo-caecal junction
3
Ileo-caecal junction
4
Ileo-caecal junction
180
Biology+4 / −1
Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C.
formation is produced by:
1
Alpha cells of pancreas
2
Alpha cells of pancreas
3
Alpha cells of pancreas
4
Alpha cells of pancreas
181
Biology+4 / −1
Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones?
1
Neophron
2
Neophron
3
Neophron
4
Neophron
182
Biology+4 / −1
The centriole undergoes duplication during:
1
S-phase
2
S-phase
3
S-phase
4
S-phase
183
Biology+4 / −1
Dobson units are used to measure thickness of:
1
CFCs
2
CFCs
3
CFCs
4
CFCs
184
Biology+4 / −1
Which one of the following belongs to the family
Muscidae?
1
Fire fly
2
Fire fly
3
Fire fly
4
Fire fly
185
Biology+4 / −1
For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection?
1
Western Blotting Technique
2
Western Blotting Technique
3
Western Blotting Technique
4
Western Blotting Technique
186
Biology+4 / −1
Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on:
1
Corona radiata
2
Corona radiata
3
Corona radiata
4
Corona radiata
187
Biology+4 / −1
Chronic autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as:
1
Arthritis
2
Arthritis
3
Arthritis
4
Arthritis
188
Biology+4 / −1
Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD?
1
CuT
2
CuT
3
CuT
4
CuT
189
Biology+4 / −1
Match List-I with List-II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1
(a) - (iv); (b) -(ii); (c)-(i); (d) – (iii)
2
(a) - (iv); (b) -(ii); (c)-(i); (d) – (iii)
3
(a) - (iv); (b) -(ii); (c)-(i); (d) – (iii)
4
(a) - (iv); (b) -(ii); (c)-(i); (d) – (iii)
190
Biology+4 / −1
Match List-I with List-II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
2
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
3
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
4
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
191
Biology+4 / −1
The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G1 phase is 8. What would be the number of chromosomes after the S phase?
1
8
2
8
3
8
4
8
192
Biology+4 / −1
During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if a very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first?
1
Annealing
2
Annealing
3
Annealing
4
Annealing
193
Biology+4 / −1
Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of
inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?
1
Thrombin
2
Thrombin
3
Thrombin
4
Thrombin
194
Biology+4 / −1
Succus entericus is referred to as:
1
Pancreatic juice
2
Pancreatic juice
3
Pancreatic juice
4
Pancreatic juice
195
Biology+4 / −1
Identify the incorrect pair.
1
Alkaloids - Codeine
2
Alkaloids - Codeine
3
Alkaloids - Codeine
4
Alkaloids - Codeine
196
Biology+4 / −1
Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?
1
Leptotene
2
Leptotene
3
Leptotene
4
Leptotene
197
Biology+4 / −1
Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as "Universal recipients", This is due to:
1
Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
2
Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
3
Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
4
Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
198
Biology+4 / −1
A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is:
1
Degenerate primer sequence
2
Degenerate primer sequence
3
Degenerate primer sequence
4
Degenerate primer sequence
199
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following RNAs is not required for
the synthesis of protein?
1
mRNA
2
mRNA
3
mRNA
4
mRNA
200
Biology+4 / −1
Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability"
to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination
in the process of transcription in prokaryotes?
1
DNA dependent DNA polymerase
2
DNA dependent DNA polymerase
3
DNA dependent DNA polymerase
4
DNA dependent DNA polymerase
NEET 2016 · Full Paper · 180 questions · 200 minutes · +4 / −1 marking
