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⚛️ Physics — 50 Questions
1
Physics+4 / −1
Match List-I with List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
2
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
3
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
4
(a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii)
2
Physics+4 / −1
The area of a rectangular field (in m2 ) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off the value for correct significant digits is
1
138 × 101
2
138 × 101
3
138 × 101
4
138 × 101
3
Physics+4 / −1
The volume occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 kg water at STP, if the intermolecular forces vanish away is
1
\(5.6 \times 10^6\, m^3\)
2
\(5.6 \times 10^6\, m^3\)
3
\(5.6 \times 10^6\, m^3\)
4
\(5.6 \times 10^6\, m^3\)
4
Physics+4 / −1
The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1st , 2nd , 3rd and 4th second
1
1 : 2 : 3 : 4
2
1 : 2 : 3 : 4
3
1 : 2 : 3 : 4
4
1 : 2 : 3 : 4
5
Physics+4 / −1
The graph which shows the variation of the de Broglie wavelength (λ) of a particle and its associated momentum (p) is
1
2
3
4
6
Physics+4 / −1
The peak voltage of the ac source is equal to
1
The value of voltage supplied to the circuit
2
The value of voltage supplied to the circuit
3
The value of voltage supplied to the circuit
4
The value of voltage supplied to the circuit
7
Physics+4 / −1
A ball is projected with a velocity, \(10\, ms^{−1} \), at an angle of \( 60^\circ \) with the vertical direction. Its speed at the highest point of its trajectory will be
1
Zero
2
Zero
3
Zero
4
Zero
8
Physics+4 / −1
The angle between the electric lines of force and the equipotential surface is
1
\(0^\circ \)
2
\(0^\circ \)
3
\(0^\circ \)
4
\(0^\circ \)
9
Physics+4 / −1
Two point charges −q and +q are placed at a distance of L, as shown in the figure. The magnitude of electric field intensity at a distance R (R ≫ L) varies as:
1
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{R^2}\)
2
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{R^2}\)
3
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{R^2}\)
4
\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{R^2}\)
10
Physics+4 / −1
A wheat stone bridge is used to determine the value of unknown resistance X by adjusting the variable resistance Y as shown in the figure. For the most precise measurement of X , the resistances P and Q :
1
Should be approximately equal to 2X
2
Should be approximately equal to 2X
3
Should be approximately equal to 2X
4
Should be approximately equal to 2X
11
Physics+4 / −1
An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 kg (lift + passengers) is moving up with a constant speed of 1.5 ms−1. The frictional force opposing the motion is 3000 N . The minimum power delivered by the motor to the lift in watts is : (g = 10 ms−2)
1
23000
2
23000
3
23000
4
23000
12
Physics+4 / −1
A body of mass \(60\,g\) experiences a gravitational force of \(3.0\,N\), when placed at a particular point. The magnitude of the gravitational field intensity at that point is
1
\(0.05\,N/kg\)
2
\(0.05\,N/kg\)
3
\(0.05\,N/kg\)
4
\(0.05\,N/kg\)
13
Physics+4 / −1
Plane angle and solid angle have
1
Units but no dimensions
2
Units but no dimensions
3
Units but no dimensions
4
Units but no dimensions
14
Physics+4 / −1
A shell of mass m is at rest initially. It explodes into three fragments having mass in the ratio 2 : 2 : 1. If the fragments having equal mass flyoff along mutually perpendicular directions with speed v, the speed of the third (lighter) fragment is
1
v
2
v
3
v
4
v
15
Physics+4 / −1
The angular speed of a fly wheel moving with uniform angular acceleration changes from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds. The angular acceleration in rad ∕ s2 is
1
\(2\pi\)
2
\(2\pi\)
3
\(2\pi\)
4
\(2\pi\)
16
Physics+4 / −1
Two objects of mass 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 10 m with negligible mass. The distance of the center of mass of the system from the 10 kg mass is
1
\(\displaystyle \frac{10}{3}\) m
2
\(\displaystyle \frac{10}{3}\) m
3
\(\displaystyle \frac{10}{3}\) m
4
\(\displaystyle \frac{10}{3}\) m
17
Physics+4 / −1
The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its plane to the radius of gyration of the disc about its diameter is
1
2 : 1
2
2 : 1
3
2 : 1
4
2 : 1
18
Physics+4 / −1
An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the same initial state as shown in the figure below. Those processes are adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric and isochoric. The curve which represents the adiabatic process among 1, 2, 3 and 4 is
1
1
2
1
3
1
4
1
19
Physics+4 / −1
The displacement-time graphs of two moving particles make angles of \(30^ \circ\) and \(45^ \circ\) with the x-axis as shown in the figure. The ratio of their respective velocity is
1
\(\sqrt{3} : 1\)
2
\(\sqrt{3} : 1\)
3
\(\sqrt{3} : 1\)
4
\(\sqrt{3} : 1\)
20
Physics+4 / −1
When two monochromatic lights of frequency, v and \(\displaystyle \frac{v}{2}\) are incident on a photoelectric metal, their stopping potential becomes \(\displaystyle \frac{V_s}{2}\) and \(\displaystyle V_s\) respectively. The threshold frequency for this metal is
1
2 v
2
2 v
3
2 v
4
2 v
21
Physics+4 / −1
A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a highly viscous liquid.The curve in the graph shown, which represents the speed of the ball (v) as a function of time (t) is
1
A
2
A
3
A
4
A
22
Physics+4 / −1
If a soap bubble expands, the pressure inside the bubble
1
Decreases
2
Decreases
3
Decreases
4
Decreases
23
Physics+4 / −1
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The stretching of a spring is determined by the shear modulus of the material of the spring.
Reason (R): A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength than a steel spring of same dimensions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
1
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
4
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
24
Physics+4 / −1

In the given circuits (a), (b), and (c), the potential drop across the two p − n junctions are equal in
1
Circuit (a) only
2
Circuit (a) only
3
Circuit (a) only
4
Circuit (a) only
25
Physics+4 / −1
In half wave rectification, if the input frequency is 60 Hz, then the output frequency would be
1
Zero
2
Zero
3
Zero
4
Zero
26
Physics+4 / −1

The truth table for the given logic circuit is
1
2
3
4
27
Physics+4 / −1
A square loop of side 1m and resistance 1Ω is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T . If the plane of loop is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field, the magnetic flux through the loop is
1
2 weber
2
2 weber
3
2 weber
4
2 weber
28
Physics+4 / −1
A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H , capacitance 10 μF , resistance 50 Ω is connected to an ac source of voltage, V = 200 sin(100t) volt. If the resonant frequency of the LCR circuit is v0 and the frequency of the ac source is v, then
1
\(\displaystyle v_0\, =\, v\, =\, 50\) Hz
2
\(\displaystyle v_0\, =\, v\, =\, 50\) Hz
3
\(\displaystyle v_0\, =\, v\, =\, 50\) Hz
4
\(\displaystyle v_0\, =\, v\, =\, 50\) Hz
29
Physics+4 / −1
A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal diameter at 2 rad−1. If the vertical component of earth's magnetic field at that place is 2 × 10−5T and electrical resistance of the coil is 12.56Ω, then the maximum induced current in the coil will be
1
0.25 A
2
0.25 A
3
0.25 A
4
0.25 A
30
Physics+4 / −1
Two pendulums of length \(121\, cm\) and \(100\, cm\) start vibrating in phase. At some instant, the two are at their mean position in the same phase. The minimum number of vibrations of the shorter pendulum after which the two are again in phase at the mean position is:
1
\(11\)
2
\(11\)
3
\(11\)
4
\(11\)
31
Physics+4 / −1
If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of a transverse wave along the string is
1
\(1 : 1\)
2
\(1 : 1\)
3
\(1 : 1\)
4
\(1 : 1\)
32
Physics+4 / −1
Two hollow conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 (R1 ≫ R2) have equal charges. The potential would be
1
More on bigger sphere
2
More on bigger sphere
3
More on bigger sphere
4
More on bigger sphere
33
Physics+4 / −1
A capacitor of capacitance C = 900pF is charged fully by 100V battery B as shown in figure (a). Then it is disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged capacitor of capacitance C = 900pF as shown in figure (b). The electrostatic energy stored by the system (b) is
1
4.5 × 10−6 J
2
4.5 × 10−6 J
3
4.5 × 10−6 J
4
4.5 × 10−6 J
34
Physics+4 / −1
In the given nuclear reaction, the element X is :
\(\displaystyle ^{23} _{11} \,Na \rightarrow\,X+e^+ + v\)
1
\(\displaystyle ^{23} _{11} \,Na \)
2
\(\displaystyle ^{23} _{11} \,Na \)
3
\(\displaystyle ^{23} _{11} \,Na \)
4
\(\displaystyle ^{23} _{11} \,Na \)
35
Physics+4 / −1
In a Young’s double slit experiment, a student observes 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen when a monochromatic light of 600 nm wavelength is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, then the number of fringes he would observe in the same-region of the screen is :
1
6
2
6
3
6
4
6
36
Physics+4 / −1
Let T1 and T2 be the energy of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen atom, respectively. According to the Bohr’s model of an atom, the ratio T1 : T2 is :
1
1:04
2
1:04
3
1:04
4
1:04
37
Physics+4 / −1
A light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive index \(\sqrt{3}\) , at an angle \(60^ \circ\) . The angle between the refracted and reflected rays would be :
1
\(30^\circ\)
2
\(30^\circ\)
3
\(30^\circ\)
4
\(30^\circ\)
38
Physics+4 / −1
The transparent media A and B are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in those media are \(1.5 \times 10^ 8 \,m/s\) and \(2.0 \times 10^8 \,m/s\), respectively. The critical angle for a ray of light for these two media is :
1
\(sin^{–1}\left(0.500\right)\)
2
\(sin^{–1}\left(0.500\right)\)
3
\(sin^{–1}\left(0.500\right)\)
4
\(sin^{–1}\left(0.500\right)\)
39
Physics+4 / −1
As the temperature increases, the electrical resistance
1
Increases for both conductors and semiconductors
2
Increases for both conductors and semiconductors
3
Increases for both conductors and semiconductors
4
Increases for both conductors and semiconductors
40
Physics+4 / −1
A nucleus of mass number of 189 splits into two nuclei having mass number 125 and 64. The ratio of radius of two daughter nuclei respectively is :
1
1:01
2
1:01
3
1:01
4
1:01
41
Physics+4 / −1
Two resistors of resistance, 100 Ω and 200 Ω are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. The ratio of the thermal energy developed in 100 Ω to that in 200 Ω in a given time is
1
1 : 2
2
1 : 2
3
1 : 2
4
1 : 2
42
Physics+4 / −1
A copper wire of length 10 m and radius \(\displaystyle \left(\frac{10{^{−2}}}{\sqrt{\pi}}\right)\) m has electrical resistance of 10 Ω. The current density in the wire for an electric field strength of 10 (V ∕ m) is
1
\(10^4\,A ∕ m^2\)
2
\(10^4\,A ∕ m^2\)
3
\(10^4\,A ∕ m^2\)
4
\(10^4\,A ∕ m^2\)
43
Physics+4 / −1
The dimensions [\(M LT^{−2}A^{−2}\)] belong to the
1
Magnetic flux
2
Magnetic flux
3
Magnetic flux
4
Magnetic flux
44
Physics+4 / −1
A long solenoid of radius 1mm has 100 turns per mm. If 1 A current flows in the solenoid, the magnetic field strength at the centre of the solenoid is
1
\(6.28 \times 10^{−2}\,T\)
2
\(6.28 \times 10^{−2}\,T\)
3
\(6.28 \times 10^{−2}\,T\)
4
\(6.28 \times 10^{−2}\,T\)
45
Physics+4 / −1
Match List-I with List-II
1
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
2
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
3
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
4
(a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
46
Physics+4 / −1
When light propagates through a material medium of relative permittivity \(\epsilon_r\) and relative permeability \(\mu_r\), the velocity of light, v is given by (c-velocity of light in vacuum)
1
v = c
2
v = c
3
v = c
4
v = c
47
Physics+4 / −1
From Ampere's circuital law for a long straight wire of circular cross section carrying a steady current, the variation of magnetic field in the inside and outside region of the wire is:
1
Uniform and remains constant for both the regions.
2
Uniform and remains constant for both the regions.
3
Uniform and remains constant for both the regions.
4
Uniform and remains constant for both the regions.
48
Physics+4 / −1
Given below are two statements.
Statement I : Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength of an infinitesimal current element (Idl) of a current carrying conductor only.
Statement II : Biot-Savart's law is analogous to Coulomb's inverse square law of charge q, with the former being related to the field produced by a scalar source, Id while the later being produced by a vector source, q. In light of above statements choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
49
Physics+4 / −1
The energy that will be ideally radiated by a 100kW transmitter in 1 hour is
1
36 × 107 J
2
36 × 107 J
3
36 × 107 J
4
36 × 107 J
50
Physics+4 / −1
A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20 cm each. If the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5, the power of the lens is
1
+2 D
2
+2 D
3
+2 D
4
+2 D
🧪 Chemistry — 50 Questions
51
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which one is not correct mathematical equationfor Dalton's Law of partial pressure?
Here p = total pressure of gaseous mixture
1
\(p\,=\,p_1\,+\,p_2\,+\,p_3\)
2
\(p\,=\,p_1\,+\,p_2\,+\,p_3\)
3
\(p\,=\,p_1\,+\,p_2\,+\,p_3\)
4
\(p\,=\,p_1\,+\,p_2\,+\,p_3\)
52
Chemistry+4 / −1
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In a particular point defect, anionic solid is electrically neutral, even if few of its cations are missing from its unit cells.
Reason (R) : In an ionic solid, Frenkel defectarises due to dislocation of cation from its latticesite to interstitial site, maintaining overall electrical neutrality.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
4
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
53
Chemistry+4 / −1
Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisationenthalpy because of
1
small size
2
small size
3
small size
4
small size
54
Chemistry+4 / −1
The pH of the solution containing 50 mL each of 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01 M acetic acid is
[Given aKa, of CH3COOH = 4.57]
1
5.57
2
5.57
3
5.57
4
5.57
55
Chemistry+4 / −1
Identify the incorrect statement from the following
1
Alkali metals react with water to form their hydroxides.
2
Alkali metals react with water to form their hydroxides.
3
Alkali metals react with water to form their hydroxides.
4
Alkali metals react with water to form their hydroxides.
56
Chemistry+4 / −1
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol because of electron withdrawing nitro group.
Statement II : O-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and P-nitrophenol will have same acidic strength as they have one nitro group attached to the phenolic ring.
In the light of the above statements, choose themost appropriate answer from the options givenbelow:
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
57
Chemistry+4 / −1
What mass of 95% pure CaCO3 will be required to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution according to the following reaction?

[Calculate upto second place of decimal point]
1
1.25 g
2
1.25 g
3
1.25 g
4
1.25 g
58
Chemistry+4 / −1
The IUPAC name of an element with atomicnumber 119 is
1
ununennium
2
ununennium
3
ununennium
4
ununennium
59
Chemistry+4 / −1
Choose the correct statement:
1
Diamond and graphite have two dimensional network.
2
Diamond and graphite have two dimensional network.
3
Diamond and graphite have two dimensional network.
4
Diamond and graphite have two dimensional network.
60
Chemistry+4 / −1
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In the coagulation of a negativesol, the flocculating power of the three given ionsis in the order
AI3+ > Ba2+ > Na+
Statement II : In the coagulation of a positivesol, the flocculating power of the three given saltsis in the orderNaCl > Na2SO4 > Na3PO3
In the light of the above statements, choose themost appropriate answer from the options givenbelow:
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
61
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which of the following p-V curve representsmaximum work done?
1
2
3
4
62
Chemistry+4 / −1
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO2 to give unstable diazonium salts.
Statement Il : Primary aromatic amines reactwith HNO2 to form diazonium salts which are stable even above 300 K.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
63
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which amongst the following is incorrect statement?
1
The bond order of \(O_{2}^{+}\), \(O_2\), \(O_{2}^{-}\), and \(O_{2}^{2-}\) are2.5, 2, 1.5 and 1, respectively
2
The bond order of \(O_{2}^{+}\), \(O_2\), \(O_{2}^{-}\), and \(O_{2}^{2-}\) are2.5, 2, 1.5 and 1, respectively
3
The bond order of \(O_{2}^{+}\), \(O_2\), \(O_{2}^{-}\), and \(O_{2}^{2-}\) are2.5, 2, 1.5 and 1, respectively
4
The bond order of \(O_{2}^{+}\), \(O_2\), \(O_{2}^{-}\), and \(O_{2}^{2-}\) are2.5, 2, 1.5 and 1, respectively
64
Chemistry+4 / −1

What is Y in the above reaction?
1
RCOO-Mg+X
2
RCOO-Mg+X
3
RCOO-Mg+X
4
RCOO-Mg+X
65
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which statement regarding polymers isnot correct?
1
Elastomers have polymer chains held togetherby weak intermolecular forces
2
Elastomers have polymer chains held togetherby weak intermolecular forces
3
Elastomers have polymer chains held togetherby weak intermolecular forces
4
Elastomers have polymer chains held togetherby weak intermolecular forces
66
Chemistry+4 / −1
Given below are half cell reactions:

Will the permanganate ion, MnO4- liberate O2 from water in the presence of an acid?
1
\(\text{Yes, because}\, E^\circ _{cell}\,=\,+0.287\, \text{V}\)
2
\(\text{Yes, because}\, E^\circ _{cell}\,=\,+0.287\, \text{V}\)
3
\(\text{Yes, because}\, E^\circ _{cell}\,=\,+0.287\, \text{V}\)
4
\(\text{Yes, because}\, E^\circ _{cell}\,=\,+0.287\, \text{V}\)
67
Chemistry+4 / −1
The Kjeldahl's method for the estimation of nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of nitrogen in which one of the following compounds?
1
2
3
4
68
Chemistry+4 / −1
The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is
1
Enzymes are biocatalysts.
2
Enzymes are biocatalysts.
3
Enzymes are biocatalysts.
4
Enzymes are biocatalysts.
69
Chemistry+4 / −1
The IUPAC name of the complex - [Ag(H2O)2] [Ag(CN)2] is :
1
dicyanido silver(II) diaqua argentate(II)
2
dicyanido silver(II) diaqua argentate(II)
3
dicyanido silver(II) diaqua argentate(II)
4
dicyanido silver(II) diaqua argentate(II)
70
Chemistry+4 / −1
Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options givenbelow :
1
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c)-(iv), (d) -(i)
2
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c)-(iv), (d) -(i)
3
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c)-(iv), (d) -(i)
4
(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c)-(iv), (d) -(i)
71
Chemistry+4 / −1
Amongst the following which one will havemaximum 'lone pair - lone pair' electron repulsions?
1
CIF3
2
CIF3
3
CIF3
4
CIF3
72
Chemistry+4 / −1
At 298 K, the standard electrode potentials of
\(\displaystyle \frac{Cu^{2+}}{Cu}\), \(\displaystyle \frac{Zn^{2+}}{Zn}\), \(\displaystyle \frac{Fe^{2+}}{Fe}\), and \(\displaystyle \frac{Ag^{+}}{Ag}\) are \(0.34\, \text{V}\), \(-0.76\, \text{V}\), \(-0.44\, \text{ V}\) and \(0.80\, \text{V}\), respectively.
On the basis of standard electrode potential, predict which of the following reaction cannot occur?
1
2
3
4
73
Chemistry+4 / −1
Identify the incorrect statement from thefollowing:
1
All the five 5d orbitals are different in size when compared to the respective 4d orbitals.
2
All the five 5d orbitals are different in size when compared to the respective 4d orbitals.
3
All the five 5d orbitals are different in size when compared to the respective 4d orbitals.
4
All the five 5d orbitals are different in size when compared to the respective 4d orbitals.
74
Chemistry+4 / −1
In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of asolute, there is
1
500 mL of solvent
2
500 mL of solvent
3
500 mL of solvent
4
500 mL of solvent
75
Chemistry+4 / −1
Given below are two statements: one is labelledas Assertion (A) and the other is labelled asReason (R).
Assertion (A) : ICI is more reactive than I2.
Reason (R): I-CI bond is weaker than I-I bond.
In the light of the above statements, choose themost appropriate answer from the options givenbelow:
1
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correctexplanation of (A).
2
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correctexplanation of (A).
3
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correctexplanation of (A).
4
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correctexplanation of (A).
76
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which compound amongst the following is not anaromatic compound?
1
2
3
4
77
Chemistry+4 / −1
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increases in the order
H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te.
Statement II: The boiling points of these hydrides increase with increase in molar mass.
In the light of the above statements, choose themost appropriate answer from the options givenbelow :
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
78
Chemistry+4 / −1
Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the options givenbelow :
1
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) – (iii), (d) - (ii)
2
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) – (iii), (d) - (ii)
3
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) – (iii), (d) - (ii)
4
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) – (iii), (d) - (ii)
79
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which of the following sequence of reactions issuitable to synthesize chlorobenzene?
1
Benzene, Cl2, anhydrous FeCl3
2
Benzene, Cl2, anhydrous FeCl3
3
Benzene, Cl2, anhydrous FeCl3
4
Benzene, Cl2, anhydrous FeCl3
80
Chemistry+4 / −1
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons ofcomparable molecular masses because of weakmolecular association in aldehydes and ketones dueto dipole - dipole interactions.
Statement II : The boiling points of aldehydesand ketones are lower than the alcohols of similarmolecular masses due to the absence of H-bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose themost appropriate answer from the given below:
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
81
Chemistry+4 / −1
Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options givenbelow:
1
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
2
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
3
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
4
(a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
82
Chemistry+4 / −1
The incorrect statement regarding chirality is
1
SN1reaction yields 1:1 mixture of bothenantiomers
2
SN1reaction yields 1:1 mixture of bothenantiomers
3
SN1reaction yields 1:1 mixture of bothenantiomers
4
SN1reaction yields 1:1 mixture of bothenantiomers
83
Chemistry+4 / −1
Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options givenbelow:
1
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
2
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
3
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
4
(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
84
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which of the following statement is not correctabout diborane?
1
There are two 3-centre-2-electron bonds.
2
There are two 3-centre-2-electron bonds.
3
There are two 3-centre-2-electron bonds.
4
There are two 3-centre-2-electron bonds.
85
Chemistry+4 / −1
The given graph is a representation of kinetics ofa reaction.

The y and x axes for zero and first order reactions,respectively are
1
zero order (y = concentration and x = time),first order (y = t and x = concentration)
2
zero order (y = concentration and x = time),first order (y = t and x = concentration)
3
zero order (y = concentration and x = time),first order (y = t and x = concentration)
4
zero order (y = concentration and x = time),first order (y = t and x = concentration)
86
Chemistry+4 / −1
Match List-I with List-II.

Choose the correct answer from the options givenbelow:
1
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
2
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
3
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
4
(a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
87
Chemistry+4 / −1
A 10.0 L flask contains 64g ofoxygen at \(\text{27}^\circ C\). (Assume O2 gas is behaving ideally). The pressure inside theflask in bar is (Given R = 0.0831 L bar K-1 mol-1)
1
2.5
2
2.5
3
2.5
4
2.5
88
Chemistry+4 / −1
For a first order reaction A → Products, initialconcentration of A is 0.1 M, which becomes0.001 M after 5 minutes. Rate constant for thereaction in min-1 is
1
1.3818
2
1.3818
3
1.3818
4
1.3818
89
Chemistry+4 / −1
The order of energy absorbed which is responsiblefor the color of complexes
1
[A] > [B] > [C]
2
[A] > [B] > [C]
3
[A] > [B] > [C]
4
[A] > [B] > [C]
90
Chemistry+4 / −1
\(\text{3O}_2\,\left(g\right) \rightarrow\, \text{2O}_3 \left(g\right) \)
for the above reaction at 298 K, Kc is found to be \(3.0 \times 10^-{59}\). If the concentration of O2 at equilibrium is 0.040 M then concentration of O2 in M is
1
\( 4.38 \times 10^{-32}\)
2
\( 4.38 \times 10^{-32}\)
3
\( 4.38 \times 10^{-32}\)
4
\( 4.38 \times 10^{-32}\)
91
Chemistry+4 / −1
Find the emf of the cell in which the followingreaction takes place at 298 K
1
1.0385 V
2
1.0385 V
3
1.0385 V
4
1.0385 V
92
Chemistry+4 / −1
Which one of the following is not formed whenacetone reacts with 2-pentanone in the presenceof dilute NaOH followed by heating?
1
2
3
4
93
Chemistry+4 / −1
The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is
1
1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol
2
1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol
3
1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol
4
1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol
94
Chemistry+4 / −1
If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He+ ion is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit of Li2+ ion?
1
158.7 pm
2
158.7 pm
3
158.7 pm
4
158.7 pm
95
Chemistry+4 / −1
Compound X on reaction with O3 followed by Zn/H2O gives formaldehyde and 2-methyl propanal as products.
The compound X is
1
3-Methylbut-1-ene
2
3-Methylbut-1-ene
3
3-Methylbut-1-ene
4
3-Methylbut-1-ene
96
Chemistry+4 / −1
In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO4 oxidises iodide into iodate. The change in oxidation state of manganese in this reaction is from
1
+7 to +4
2
+7 to +4
3
+7 to +4
4
+7 to +4
97
Chemistry+4 / −1
The pollution due to oxides of sulphur getsenhanced due to the presence of:
(a) particulate matter
(b) Ozone
(c) hydrocarbons
(d) hydrogen peroxide
Choose the most appropriate answer from theoptions given below:
1
(a), (d) only
2
(a), (d) only
3
(a), (d) only
4
(a), (d) only
98
Chemistry+4 / −1
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : In Lucas test, primary, secondaryand tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basisof their reactivity with conc. HCl + ZnCl2, known as Lucas Reagent.
Statement II : Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at roomtemperature on reaction with Lucas Reagent.
In the light of the above statements, choose the mostappropriate answer from the options given below:
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
99
Chemistry+4 / −1
Copper crystallises in fcc unit cell with cell edgelength of \(3.608 \times 10^8\) cm. The density of copper is 8.92 g cm-3. Calculate the atomic mass of copper.
1
63.1u
2
63.1u
3
63.1u
4
63.1u
100
Chemistry+4 / −1
The product formed from the following reactionsequence is
1
2
3
4
🧬 Biology — 100 Questions
101
Biology+4 / −1
Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination:
1
Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants
2
Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants
3
Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants
4
Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants
102
Biology+4 / −1
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamousaol.
Statement II : Cleistogamy is disadvantageousas there is no chance for cross pollination.
In the light of the above statements, choose thecorrect answer from the options given below:
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
103
Biology+4 / −1
Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements:
(a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid.
(b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more c =c bonds.
(c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter.
(d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents.
(e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
(a), (b) and (c) only
2
(a), (b) and (c) only
3
(a), (b) and (c) only
4
(a), (b) and (c) only
104
Biology+4 / −1
Transposons can be used during which one of the following?
1
Polymerase chain reaction
2
Polymerase chain reaction
3
Polymerase chain reaction
4
Polymerase chain reaction
105
Biology+4 / −1
While explaining interspecific interaction of population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction, (-) sign is assigned for detrimental interaction and (0) for neutral interaction. Which of the following interactions can be assigned (+) for one species and (-) for another species involved in the interaction?
1
Predation
2
Predation
3
Predation
4
Predation
106
Biology+4 / −1
In the following palindromic base sequence of DNA, which one can be cut easily by a particular restriction enzyme?
1
5 GATACT 3;3 CTATGA 5 slseubos
2
5 GATACT 3;3 CTATGA 5 slseubos
3
5 GATACT 3;3 CTATGA 5 slseubos
4
5 GATACT 3;3 CTATGA 5 slseubos
107
Biology+4 / −1
Which one of the following will accelerate phosphorus cycle?
1
Burning of fossil fuels
2
Burning of fossil fuels
3
Burning of fossil fuels
4
Burning of fossil fuels
108
Biology+4 / −1
Match the plant with the kind of life cycle itexhibits.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
(a)- (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii)
2
(a)- (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii)
3
(a)- (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii)
4
(a)- (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii)
109
Biology+4 / −1
Match List - I with List - II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
(a)- (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d)- (ii)
2
(a)- (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d)- (ii)
3
(a)- (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d)- (ii)
4
(a)- (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv); (d)- (ii)
110
Biology+4 / −1
What is the role of large bundle sheath cells found around the vascular bundles in C4 plants?
1
To provide the site of photorespiratory pathway
2
To provide the site of photorespiratory pathway
3
To provide the site of photorespiratory pathway
4
To provide the site of photorespiratory pathway
111
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is not a connective tissue?
1
Blood
2
Blood
3
Blood
4
Blood
112
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following statements are true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for Oogenesis?
(a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes.
(b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis.
(c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population.
(d) It is controlled by the Luteinizing hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary.
(e) It is initiated at puberty.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1
(c) and (e) only
2
(c) and (e) only
3
(c) and (e) only
4
(c) and (e) only
113
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is a correct statement?
1
Cyanobacteria are a group of autotrophic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera.
2
Cyanobacteria are a group of autotrophic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera.
3
Cyanobacteria are a group of autotrophic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera.
4
Cyanobacteria are a group of autotrophic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera.
114
Biology+4 / −1
If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother was also colour blind, what are the chances of her progeny having colour blindness ?
1
25%
2
25%
3
25%
4
25%
115
Biology+4 / −1
Match List - I with List - II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
1
(a)- (iü); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)
2
(a)- (iü); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)
3
(a)- (iü); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)
4
(a)- (iü); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)
116
Biology+4 / −1
DNA polymorphism forms the basis of:
1
Genetic mapping
2
Genetic mapping
3
Genetic mapping
4
Genetic mapping
117
Biology+4 / −1
The device which can remove particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant is:
1
STP
2
STP
3
STP
4
STP
118
Biology+4 / −1
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance.
Statement II: Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
119
Biology+4 / −1
Read the following statements about the vascular bundles
(a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner along the different radii.
(b) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not possess cambium.
(c) In open vascular bundles, cambiumn is present in between xylem and phloem.
(d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem possess endarch protoxylem.
(e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more than six xylem bundles present.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
(a), (b) and (d) only
2
(a), (b) and (d) only
3
(a), (b) and (d) only
4
(a), (b) and (d) only
120
Biology+4 / −1
The flowers are Zygomorphic in:
(a) Mustard
(b) Gulmohar
(c) Cassia
(d) Datura
(e) Chilli
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
(a), (b), (c) only
2
(a), (b), (c) only
3
(a), (b), (c) only
4
(a), (b), (c) only
121
Biology+4 / −1
Identify the correct set of statements:
(a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea.
(b) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin.
(c) Stem is flattened and fleshy on Opuntia and modified to perform the function of leaves.
(d) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration.
(e) Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
(b) and (c) only
2
(b) and (c) only
3
(b) and (c) only
4
(b) and (c) only
122
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
1
Ectocarpus - Fucoxanthin
2
Ectocarpus - Fucoxanthin
3
Ectocarpus - Fucoxanthin
4
Ectocarpus - Fucoxanthin
123
Biology+4 / −1
Which one of the following produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of Alnus?
1
Rhizobium
2
Rhizobium
3
Rhizobium
4
Rhizobium
124
Biology+4 / −1
Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from
1
Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae
2
Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae
3
Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae
4
Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae
125
Biology+4 / −1
What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid?
1
Four
2
Four
3
Four
4
Four
126
Biology+4 / −1
The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis characterizes:
1
Synaptonemal complex
2
Synaptonemal complex
3
Synaptonemal complex
4
Synaptonemal complex
127
Biology+4 / −1
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophyll cells.
Statement II : Mesophyll cells of C, plants lack RuBisCo enzyme.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
Both Statenment I and Statement II are correct
2
Both Statenment I and Statement II are correct
3
Both Statenment I and Statement II are correct
4
Both Statenment I and Statement II are correct
128
Biology+4 / −1
"Girdling Experiment" was performed by plant physiologists to identify the plant tissue through which:
1
Water is transported
2
Water is transported
3
Water is transported
4
Water is transported
129
Biology+4 / −1
XO type of sex determination can be found in
1
Drosophila
2
Drosophila
3
Drosophila
4
Drosophila
130
Biology+4 / −1
Addition of more solutes in a given solution will:
1
Raise its water potential
2
Raise its water potential
3
Raise its water potential
4
Raise its water potential
131
Biology+4 / −1
If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the whole genome of an organism, followed by assignment of functions to different segment, the methodology adopted by him is called as:
1
Sequence annotation
2
Sequence annotation
3
Sequence annotation
4
Sequence annotation
132
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following occurs due to the presence of an autosome linked dominant trait?
1
Sickle cell anaemia
2
Sickle cell anaemia
3
Sickle cell anaemia
4
Sickle cell anaemia
133
Biology+4 / −1
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Mendel's law of Independent assortmnent does not hold goods for the genes that are located closely on the same chromosome.
Reason (R) : Closely located genes asSort independently.
Answer from the options given below:
1
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
4
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
134
Biology+4 / −1
Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figuremakes it a false fruit?
1
A-Mesocarp
2
A-Mesocarp
3
A-Mesocarp
4
A-Mesocarp
135
Biology+4 / −1
The entire fleet of buses in Delhi were converted to CNG from diesel. In reference to this, which one of the following statements is false?
1
CNG burns more efficiently than diesel
2
CNG burns more efficiently than diesel
3
CNG burns more efficiently than diesel
4
CNG burns more efficiently than diesel
136
Biology+4 / −1
The anatomy of springwood shows some peculiar features. Identify the correct set of statements about springwood.
(a) It is also called early wood.
(b) In the spring season cambium produces xylem elements with narrow vessels.
(c) It is lighter in colour.
(d) The springwood along with autumnwood shows alternate concentric rings forming annual rings.
(e) It has lower density.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
(a), (b), (d) and (e) only
2
(a), (b), (d) and (e) only
3
(a), (b), (d) and (e) only
4
(a), (b), (d) and (e) only
137
Biology+4 / −1
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into blood.
Statemnent II : Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic vessels and ultimately into the blood.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
1
Both statement I and Statement II are correct
2
Both statement I and Statement II are correct
3
Both statement I and Statement II are correct
4
Both statement I and Statement II are correct
138
Biology+4 / −1
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.
Statement II : Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
139
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is not the function of theconducting part of the respiratory system?
1
It clears inhaled air from foreign particles
2
It clears inhaled air from foreign particles
3
It clears inhaled air from foreign particles
4
It clears inhaled air from foreign particles
140
Biology+4 / −1
Identify the microorganism which is responsible for the production of an immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin
1
Trichoderma polysporum
2
Trichoderma polysporum
3
Trichoderma polysporum
4
Trichoderma polysporum
141
Biology+4 / −1
Under normal physical conditions in human beings every 100 ml oxygenated blood can deliver ______ ml of O2 to the tissues.
1
2 ml
2
2 ml
3
2 ml
4
2 ml
142
Biology+4 / −1
Tegmina in cockroach arises from
1
Prothorax
2
Prothorax
3
Prothorax
4
Prothorax
143
Biology+4 / −1
In situ conservation refers to:
1
Protect and conserve the whole ecosystem
2
Protect and conserve the whole ecosystem
3
Protect and conserve the whole ecosystem
4
Protect and conserve the whole ecosystem
144
Biology+4 / −1
Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called:
1
Catabolism
2
Catabolism
3
Catabolism
4
Catabolism
145
Biology+4 / −1
A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to produce maltose. If the formula for glucose is C6H12O6 then what is the formula for maltose?
1
C12H20O10
2
C12H20O10
3
C12H20O10
4
C12H20O10
146
Biology+4 / −1
Identify the asexual reproductive structure associated with Penicillium:
1
Zoospores
2
Zoospores
3
Zoospores
4
Zoospores
147
Biology+4 / −1
Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis:
1
All the chromosomnes lie at the equator at metaphase
2
All the chromosomnes lie at the equator at metaphase
3
All the chromosomnes lie at the equator at metaphase
4
All the chromosomnes lie at the equator at metaphase
148
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?
1
RER has ribosomes attached to ER
2
RER has ribosomes attached to ER
3
RER has ribosomes attached to ER
4
RER has ribosomes attached to ER
149
Biology+4 / −1
In the taxonomic categories which hierarchical arrangement in ascending order is correct in the case of animals?
1
Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
2
Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
3
Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
4
Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
150
Biology+4 / −1
In which of the following animals, does the digestive tract have additional chambers like crop and gizzard?
1
Corvus, Columba, Chameleon
2
Corvus, Columba, Chameleon
3
Corvus, Columba, Chameleon
4
Corvus, Columba, Chameleon
151
Biology+4 / −1
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size.
Statement II : Mycoplasma are bacteria with a cell wall.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
152
Biology+4 / −1
Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by:
1
Ornithorhynchus
2
Ornithorhynchus
3
Ornithorhynchus
4
Ornithorhynchus
153
Biology+4 / −1
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
Reason (R) : Notochord is replaced by the vertebral column in the adult vertebrates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
4
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
154
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is a correct match for disease and its symptoms?
1
Arthritis - Inflamed joints
2
Arthritis - Inflamed joints
3
Arthritis - Inflamed joints
4
Arthritis - Inflamed joints
155
Biology+4 / −1
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fracture.
Reason (R) : Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of oestrogen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
4
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
156
Biology+4 / −1
In an E. coli strain the i gene gets mutated and its product can not bind the inducer molecule. If the growth medium is provided with lactose, what will be the outcome?
1
Only z gene will get transcribed
2
Only z gene will get transcribed
3
Only z gene will get transcribed
4
Only z gene will get transcribed
157
Biology+4 / −1
If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be the approximate number of base pairs?
1
3.3 × 109 bp
2
3.3 × 109 bp
3
3.3 × 109 bp
4
3.3 × 109 bp
158
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column?
1
Intercalated discs
2
Intercalated discs
3
Intercalated discs
4
Intercalated discs
159
Biology+4 / −1
Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect?
1
There are two stages in Meiosis, Meiosis-I and II
2
There are two stages in Meiosis, Meiosis-I and II
3
There are two stages in Meiosis, Meiosis-I and II
4
There are two stages in Meiosis, Meiosis-I and II
160
Biology+4 / −1
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Autoimmune disorder is a condition where the body defense mnechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies.
Statement II :Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where the body does not attack self cells.
In the light of the above statemnents, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
161
Biology+4 / −1
Natural selection where more individuals acquire a specific character value other than the mean character value, leads to:
1
Stabilising change
2
Stabilising change
3
Stabilising change
4
Stabilising change
162
Biology+4 / −1
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : The coagulum is formed of a network of threads called thrombins.
Statemnent II : Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
163
Biology+4 / −1
Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats is called:
1
Biomagnification
2
Biomagnification
3
Biomagnification
4
Biomagnification
164
Biology+4 / −1
In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes because:
1
Retroviral vector is introduced into these lymphocytes
2
Retroviral vector is introduced into these lymphocytes
3
Retroviral vector is introduced into these lymphocytes
4
Retroviral vector is introduced into these lymphocytes
165
Biology+4 / −1
At which stage of life the oogenesis process is initiated?
1
Puberty
2
Puberty
3
Puberty
4
Puberty
166
Biology+4 / −1
Lippes loop is a type of contraceptive used as:
1
Cervical barrier
2
Cervical barrier
3
Cervical barrier
4
Cervical barrier
167
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following functions is not performed by secretions from salivary glands?
1
Control bacterial population in mouth
2
Control bacterial population in mouth
3
Control bacterial population in mouth
4
Control bacterial population in mouth
168
Biology+4 / −1
If 8 Drosophila in a laboratory population of 80died during a week, the death rate in the populationis ______ individuals per Drosophila per week.
1
0.1
2
0.1
3
0.1
4
0.1
169
Biology+4 / −1
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequences to cut DNAknown as palindromic nucleotide sequences.
Statement II : Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
170
Biology+4 / −1
Statements related to human insulin are given below:
Which statement(s) is/are correct about genetically engineered Insulin?
(a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of Cpeptide.
(b) A peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were 1 produced separately in E. coli, extracted and combined by creating a disulphide bond between them.
(c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs.:RpP.
(d) Pro-hormone insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone.
(e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1
(a), (b) and (d) only
2
(a), (b) and (d) only
3
(a), (b) and (d) only
4
(a), (b) and (d) only
171
Biology+4 / −1
Given below are two statements:
Statenent I : In a scrubber, exhaust from the thermal plant is passed through the electric wires to charge the dust particles.
Statement II : Particular matter (PM 2.5) can not be removed by scrubber but can be removed by an electrostatic precipitator.lotze1.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
172
Biology+4 / −1
The recombination frequency between the genesa &c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%o, a & b is 20%,c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be thesequence of these genes on a linear chromosome?
1
a, d, b, c
2
a, d, b, c
3
a, d, b, c
4
a, d, b, c
173
Biology+4 / −1
Match list I with list II.

Choose the correct answerfrom the options given below :
1
(a)- (ii); (b) - (iü); (c) -(iv); (d)- (i)a
2
(a)- (ii); (b) - (iü); (c) -(iv); (d)- (i)a
3
(a)- (ii); (b) - (iü); (c) -(iv); (d)- (i)a
4
(a)- (ii); (b) - (iü); (c) -(iv); (d)- (i)a
174
Biology+4 / −1
Match list I with list II with respect to methods ofcontraception and their respective actions.

Choose the correct answer fromn the options given below:
1
(a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii)
2
(a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii)
3
(a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii)
4
(a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii)
175
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone?
(a) Stinulates the process of bone resorption,.
(b) Decreases Ca2+ level in blood,.
(c) Reabsorption of Ca by renal tubules,.
(d) Decreases the absorption of Ca² from digested food.
(e) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1
(a) and (c) only
2
(a) and (c) only
3
(a) and (c) only
4
(a) and (c) only
176
Biology+4 / −1
Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity:
1
Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.
2
Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.
3
Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.
4
Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.
177
Biology+4 / −1
Ten E. coli cells with 15N- dsDNA are incubated in a medium containing 14N nucleotides. After 60 minutes, how many E. coli cells will have DNA totally free from 15N?
1
20 cells
2
20 cells
3
20 cells
4
20 cells
178
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector ?
1
Presence of origin of replication
2
Presence of origin of replication
3
Presence of origin of replication
4
Presence of origin of replication
179
Biology+4 / −1
Match list I with list II.

Choose the correct answer fromn the options given below:
1
(a)- (iv): (b) - (iii); (c)-(); (d) - (ii)aiE
2
(a)- (iv): (b) - (iii); (c)-(); (d) - (ii)aiE
3
(a)- (iv): (b) - (iii); (c)-(); (d) - (ii)aiE
4
(a)- (iv): (b) - (iii); (c)-(); (d) - (ii)aiE
180
Biology+4 / −1
Which one of the following statements is correct ?
1
The atrioventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction
2
The atrioventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction
3
The atrioventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction
4
The atrioventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction
181
Biology+4 / −1
Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses
1
The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an electrical sLSynapse.
2
The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an electrical sLSynapse.
3
The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an electrical sLSynapse.
4
The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an electrical sLSynapse.
182
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following statements is not true?
1
Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution
2
Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution
3
Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution
4
Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution
183
Biology+4 / −1
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification.
Reason (R): The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
4
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
184
Biology+4 / −1
The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as:
1
The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
2
The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
3
The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
4
The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
185
Biology+4 / −1
The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to:
1
Speed up the malting process
2
Speed up the malting process
3
Speed up the malting process
4
Speed up the malting process
186
Biology+4 / −1
Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of:
1
Cutin
2
Cutin
3
Cutin
4
Cutin
187
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is not observed during anapoplastic pathway?
1
Movement of water occurs throughintercellular spaces and wall of the cells
2
Movement of water occurs throughintercellular spaces and wall of the cells
3
Movement of water occurs throughintercellular spaces and wall of the cells
4
Movement of water occurs throughintercellular spaces and wall of the cells
188
Biology+4 / −1
Which of the following is not a method of ex situ conservation?
1
In vitro fertilization
2
In vitro fertilization
3
In vitro fertilization
4
In vitro fertilization
189
Biology+4 / −1
Which one of the following statements is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique?
1
The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution
2
The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution
3
The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution
4
The process of extraction of separated DNA strands from gel is called elution
190
Biology+4 / −1
Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis?
It involves:
1
Breakdown of proton gradient
2
Breakdown of proton gradient
3
Breakdown of proton gradient
4
Breakdown of proton gradient
191
Biology+4 / −1
Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction are causes for:
1
Population explosion
2
Population explosion
3
Population explosion
4
Population explosion
192
Biology+4 / −1
Which one of the following plants does not show plasticity?
1
Cotton
2
Cotton
3
Cotton
4
Cotton
193
Biology+4 / −1
Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to Predation?
1
It helps in maintaining species diversity in a community
2
It helps in maintaining species diversity in a community
3
It helps in maintaining species diversity in a community
4
It helps in maintaining species diversity in a community
194
Biology+4 / −1
What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid fermentation?
1
Approximately 15%
2
Approximately 15%
3
Approximately 15%
4
Approximately 15%
195
Biology+4 / −1
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler substances by microbes.
Statement II: Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
1
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4
Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
196
Biology+4 / −1
Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:
(a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin.
(b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active.
(c) Histone octamer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome.
(d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine.
(e) Atypical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
(b), (d), (e) Only
2
(b), (d), (e) Only
3
(b), (d), (e) Only
4
(b), (d), (e) Only
197
Biology+4 / −1
Which one of the following plants shows vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens?
1
Colchicum autumnale
2
Colchicum autumnale
3
Colchicum autumnale
4
Colchicum autumnale
198
Biology+4 / −1
In old trees the greater part of secondary xylem is dark brown and resistant to insect attack due to:
(a) Secretion of secondary metabolites and their deposition in the lumen of vessels.
(b) Deposition of organic cómpounds like tannins and resins in the central layers of the stem.
(c) Deposition of suberin and aromatic substances in the outer layer of the stem.
(d) Deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the peripheral layers of the stem.
(e) Presence of parenchyma cells, functionally active xylem elements and essential oils.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1
(a) and (b) only
2
(a) and (b) only
3
(a) and (b) only
4
(a) and (b) only
199
Biology+4 / −1
Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division?
1
Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes
2
Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes
3
Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes
4
Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes
200
Biology+4 / −1
Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of the following phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is known to produce female flowers in the plants?
1
ABA
2
ABA
3
ABA
4
ABA